1. the cat is regulating its body temperature, a process called thermoregulation. what evidence from the graph supports this claim.
Answers
In the given graph, the cat has maintained its body temperature of 38°C to 42°C , even when the ambient (outside) temperature keeps on changing. Therefore this gives the evidence that the cat is able to regulate its body temperature through thermoregulation.
Thermoregulation is the process of maintaining a stable body temperature independent of external temperature. The organisms who are able to maintain a stable temperature are called endotherms or warm-blooded animals.
Body temperature is very crucial to be maintained because otherwise it can hamper with the normal functioning of the body. If the body temperature is very high, the proteins of the body may denature and many processes of the body are affected.
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Related Questions
6. What similarities did the French and American Revolutions share? What were
the end results of the French Revolution and the American Revolution that they
had in common?
Answers
The French and American Revolutions shared several similarities. Both were inspired by Enlightenment ideals and a desire for greater political and individual freedoms.
Both involved popular uprisings against oppressive governments and were fueled by economic grievances. The revolutions also resulted in the establishment of democratic republics and the adoption of new constitutions.
In terms of end results, both revolutions led to the overthrow of monarchies and the establishment of democratic governments. They also paved the way for the expansion of individual rights and liberties.
However, both revolutions also experienced periods of instability and violence, particularly in the aftermath of the French Revolution, which included the Reign of Terror and the rise of Napoleon Bonaparte.
Overall, the French and American Revolutions represented significant turning points in modern history and had a lasting impact on the world.
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Brett sets up an experiment to test how sound waves are
affected by the type of medium through which they travel.
Which of the following is the independent variable for Brett's
experiment? A.sound waves B. The type of medium C. The wavelength
Answers
Answer: B. The type of medium
Explanation: As B. is what you are changing. The indipendent variable levels are the different types of mediums.
what is a cell nucleus what are the different function of it?
Answers
Answer:
Okay, so a nucleus is a membrane-enclosed organelle in a cell.
Functions are:
1) It stores the DNA material.
2) It coordinates cellular activities ( such as cell division, just one of many)
Hope this helps!
In 2019, what class of animals (mammals, reptiles, birds, insects, amphibians, molluscs, fish, etc.) had the greatest number of threatened species?
Answers
In 2019, what class of animals (mammals, reptiles, birds, insects, amphibians, molluscs, fish, etc.) had the greatest number of threatened species
Explanation: Amphibians had the greatest number of threatened species with 40% at risk .
which of the following are true of genetic drift? select all that apply. genetic drift can contribute to allopatric speciation. genetic drift can result in the formation of a new species. genetic drift causes physical isolation. genetic drift involves random changes in allele frequencies.
Answers
A new species can emerge as a result of genetic drift. Random shifts in allele frequencies are referred to as genetic drift. Allopatric speciation can be facilitated by genetic drift. Hence (a), (b), (d) are the correct option.
Due to independent assortment during gametogenesis, genetic drift is the term used to describe the random selection of alleles that are transferred from one generation to the next. Geographic separation between populations leads to allopatric speciation. Reproductive isolation develops gradually and accidentally in the absence of gene flow as a result of mutation, genetic drift, and the unintended consequences of natural selection driving local adaptation.
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which of the following are true of genetic drift? select all that apply.
a. genetic drift can contribute to allopatric speciation.
b. genetic drift can result in the formation of a new species.
c. genetic drift causes physical isolation.
d. genetic drift involves random changes in allele frequencies.
protein casts are: group of answer choices never present in urine always present in urine sometimes present in urine, but it is normal sometimes present in urine, but it indicates a disorder
Answers
It is important to note that protein casts may not always be present in urine even in the case of a kidney disorder.
Protein casts are formed when there is an excess amount of protein in the urine, which can be a sign of a variety of kidney disorders, including glomerulonephritis, nephrotic syndrome, and lupus nephritis.
The presence of protein casts in the urine indicates that there is a problem with the kidneys' ability to filter and retain protein, leading to the formation of protein casts in the urine. Therefore, their presence usually indicates a disorder.
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what force of evolution occurs when populations migrate and interbreed? group of answer choices mutation genetic drift natural selection gene flow
Answers
The force of evolution that occurs when populations migrate and interbreed is called gene flow.
The correct answer is gene flow.
Gene flow is the transfer of genetic information from one population to another due to the movement of individuals or their gametes (reproductive cells). This process plays a significant role in maintaining genetic diversity and preventing the negative effects of inbreeding within isolated populations.
When individuals from different populations mate and produce offspring, new genetic combinations are introduced to both populations. This exchange of genetic material can lead to increased genetic variation and promote adaptation to changing environments.
In some cases, gene flow can also counteract the effects of genetic drift and natural selection by reintroducing lost genetic traits or promoting the spread of advantageous traits.
Therefore the correct answer is gene flow.
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why are carbohydrate and proteins tests used to identify organisms? how do you perform these tests? understand all of the tests we performed to look at microbial metabolism. understand most of these come back to possession of enzymes or enzyme systems.
Answers
Carbohydrate and protein tests are used to identify organisms because they help determine the specific metabolic pathways and enzymes that an organism possesses. These tests help in differentiating and characterizing microorganisms based on their ability to utilize certain substrates or produce specific enzymes.
To perform carbohydrate tests, a microorganism is inoculated in a medium containing a specific carbohydrate and a pH indicator. The organism's ability to ferment the carbohydrate will result in the production of acid, which changes the color of the pH indicator, indicating a positive result. Some common carbohydrate tests include glucose fermentation, lactose fermentation, and mannitol fermentation tests.
For protein tests, the presence of specific enzymes is detected by observing changes in the test medium, often involving the breakdown of certain substrates. One common protein test is the catalase test, where a sample of the microorganism is mixed with hydrogen peroxide. If the organism produces catalase, it will break down the hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen, causing bubbles to form.
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salivary amylase has an optimum ph of 6.8, where it functions best. what happens to the enzyme when it is swallowed and enters the stomach which has a ph of around 2.0?
Answers
Salivary amylase functions best when it is in an environment with pH 6.8. But in stomach the pH is 2 and the salivary amylase denatures, changes shape and loss activity.
Salivary amylase is an enzyme to carryout breaking of starch in the oral cavity and is present in saliva and is produced by salivary glands. When chewed the food is mixed with the enzyme and it breaks down the complex carbohydrates to smaller units like disaccharides, oligosaccharides and starches. Its optimum pH is 6.8.
When food is swallowed the enzyme reaches stomach, where it has a pH is 2. The range of optimal activity will be from pH 6 to 7. Above and below this range the enzyme denatures and loses activity.
So in stomach it is denatured and show no enzymatic activity. The digestion further happens in small intestine in presence of pancreatic amylase.
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Why is calcium carbonate important to mollusks?
Answers
Answer:
Calcium carbonate is important to mollusks because they use it to produce their shells.
Explanation:
:)
what would be the result of an error in mitotic anaphase that failed to separate a pair of sister chromatids?
Answers
An error in mitotic anaphase that failed to separate a pair of sister chromatids would result in a condition called nondisjunction.
Nondisjunction occurs when chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division, resulting in one daughter cell receiving an extra copy of the chromosome and the other daughter cell receiving no copy. In the case of a failure to separate sister chromatids, both chromatids would end up in the same daughter cell, while the other daughter cell would receive no copy. This can lead to a variety of genetic abnormalities, depending on the specific chromosome involved and the developmental stage of the organism. For example, if nondisjunction occurs during meiosis, it can result in gametes with an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can lead to conditions such as Down syndrome in humans. If nondisjunction occurs during mitosis, it can result in somatic cells with an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can lead to tumors and other genetic disorders.
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1.- Explain an important thing to remember as you turn the high-power objective into place.
2.- What should you always remember when you use the coarse adjustment?
3.- Under what conditions would you adjust the diaphragm?
4.- What should you always remember when handling microscope slides?
5.- What is the purpose of the stage clips?
6.- In terms of your eyes, what should you try to learn as you use the microscope?
7.- What are the two parts used to carry the microscope?
8.- What is the purpose of the coverslip?
9.- What is the objective lens used to locate the specimen and first focus?
10.- What are the chemicals called that are sometimes used to make the specimens visible?
11.- What should you do if the high power objective lens touches or breaks the coverslip?
Answers
When using the coarse adjustment, it is important to remember to only use it to bring the specimen into focus initially. After that, you should switch to the fine adjustment to achieve the desired level of focus. Overuse of the coarse adjustment can damage the specimen or the objective lens.
The diaphragm is used to adjust the amount of light that passes through the specimen. It should be adjusted based on the amount of light available in the environment and the thickness of the specimen.
When handling microscope slides, you should always hold them by the edges to avoid smudging the specimen or leaving fingerprints on the slide. Additionally, you should avoid touching the glass coverslip as much as possible.
The stage clips are used to hold the microscope slide securely in place on the stage. This helps prevent the slide from moving or slipping during observation.
As you use the microscope, you should try to learn how to use both eyes to view the specimen. This technique, known as binocular viewing, can improve the quality and accuracy of your observations.
The two parts used to carry the microscope are the arm and the base. The arm is used to hold and move the microscope, while the base provides stability and support.
The coverslip is used to protect the specimen and prevent it from drying out. It also helps to keep the specimen in place and provides a flat surface for observation.
The objective lens used to locate the specimen and first focus is the low-power objective lens. This lens typically has a magnification of 4x or 10x.
The chemicals used to make specimens visible are called stains. Stains are used to increase contrast and highlight specific structures within the specimen.
If the high power objective lens touches or breaks the coverslip, you should immediately stop using the microscope and inform your instructor or lab supervisor. The lens may need to be cleaned or replaced, and the coverslip should be carefully removed and replaced with a new one.
Which of the following is/are required in order for pancreatic acinar vesicles to be transported to the plasma membrane prior to secretion? a. Actin b. Myosin c. Microtubules d. Dynein
Answers
For pancreatic acinar vesicles to be transported to the plasma membrane before secretion, both c. Microtubules and d. Dynein is required, but a more specific answer is microtubules. Microtubules provide the structural framework for vesicle transport, while dynein is a motor protein that helps move the vesicles along the microtubules.
Pancreatic acinar cells make and secrete digestive enzymes. Pancreatic acinar cells can be found in the exocrine pancreas. They are shaped like grapes and release the contents of their secretory granules (also known as zymogen granules or pancreatic acinar vesicles) into the digestive tract via the pancreatic duct. Once released, these granules mix with stomach acid and other digestive enzymes and work to break down food into smaller, more easily absorbed molecules. Microtubules are required for the transport of pancreatic acinar vesicles to the plasma membrane before secretion. Pancreatic acinar cells, like all cells, have an extensive network of microtubules that help with vesicle transport. Dynein, a motor protein, binds to microtubules and carries vesicles along them.
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crocodile comparison to human arm in function
Answers
you are examining two neurons that are connected by an electrical synapse. you observe that an action potential in neuron 1 causes a psp in neuron 2 (see image below). if you were to add on omega-conotoxin (the toxin described in the previous question), what would you see in neuron 2 the next time neuron 1 fires an action potential?
Answers
The PSP would have a reduced amplitude in neuron 2 the next time action potential from neuron 1 if omega-conotoxin (the toxin stated in the preceding question) was added.
Two neurons that are joined by an electrical synapse are under your observation. You see that a neuron 2 psp is triggered by an action potential in neuron 1. A poison called omega-conotoxin inhibits voltage-gated calcium channels, which are necessary for the release of neurotransmitters at chemical synapses.
Omega-conotoxin wouldn't have a direct impact on the electrical synapse itself since they don't rely on neurotransmitter release. The voltage-gated calcium channels required for action potential initiation, however, might theoretically be blocked if omega-conotoxin were introduced to neuron 1.
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Correct Question:
You are examining two neurons that are connected by an electrical synapse. you observe that an action potential in neuron 1 causes a psp in neuron 2 (see image below). if you were to add on omega-conotoxin (the toxin described in the previous question), what would you see in neuron 2 the next time neuron 1 fires an action potential?
In Mendel's first set of experiments, he crossed pure-breeding plants with
different forms of the same trait. Which of the following statements
summarizes his results from these experiments?
A. In each case, 100% of the offspring presented what Mendel called
the recessive trait.
B. In each case, about 50% of the offspring presented each form of
the trait.
C. In each case, 100% of the offspring presented what Mendel called
the dominant trait.
OD. In each case, about 75% of the offspring presented what Mendel
called the dominant trait.
Answers
Answer:
C
Explanation:
CccccccccccccccccccccccccCcc
does this information reinforce or contradict the data based on mapping the prevalence of malaria and the sickle cell allele published above?
Answers
Sickle cell anemia is an inherited blood disorder that is more prevalent in areas where malaria is or was common. This is because individuals with sickle cell trait (having one copy of the sickle cell allele) are less likely to develop severe malaria than individuals without the trait.
Therefore, in regions where malaria is endemic, the sickle cell allele can provide a survival advantage, and as a result, the allele may be more prevalent in these populations.
That being said, the relationship between malaria and sickle cell allele prevalence can be complex and context-dependent, and it is possible that other factors could influence the relationship between the two.
Thus, it would be important to examine the specific data and context in question to determine whether the information reinforces or contradicts the data based on mapping the prevalence of malaria and the sickle cell allele.
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Label the steps of the water cycle below
(HELP PLEASE)
Answers
What is the order of the steps in the water cycle?
There are four main parts to the water cycle: Evaporation, Convection, Precipitation and Collection. Evaporation is when the sun heats up water in rivers or lakes or the ocean and turns it into vapour or steam.
the researchers placed white and brown mouse models both in abandoned fields on the mainland (dark soil) and on sand dunes on the islands (light soil) and then measured the percentage of models that were attacked by predators. what is the take-home message of the data? do the data support or reject the hypothesis that mouse color is adaptive?
Answers
According to the results, mice that do not match the soil's color are attacked more frequently than mice that do. The idea that mice's fur color is an adaptation to help them evade predators is supported by the fact that these mice are more likely to live and have progeny.
have poorer survival rates than mice that are light in color on light-colored dirt. Dark-furred mice would have better rates of survival on dark backgrounds. Throughout generations, groups close to the white beaches have exhibited an increase in fur and the genes that result in light fur. According to a report in Science Magazine, molecular and cell biologists claimed that at least nine different mutations within a single gene were responsible for the alterations in mouse coat color. Agouti is the gene that causes variations in the color of various animals' coats.
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in order to protect an mrna from nuclease activity in the cytosol of a cell, a(n) is added to the 3' end during rna processing.
Answers
In order to protect an mRNA from nuclease activity in the cytosol of a cell, a cap is added to the 3' end during RNA processing.
The cap enables the cap-binding complex and safeguards the RNA against nuclease destruction. For other reasons, exporting nuclear technology depends on this. The cap facilitates in the identification of the mRNA once it has been transported into the cytoplasm. It accomplishes this with the aid of a little ribosomal subunit. This aids in starting the translation process.
RNA-stabilizing proteins are first applied to pre-mRNAs to prevent RNA breakdown as it is processed and released from the nucleus. The addition of stabilizing and signaling components to the 5′ and 3′ ends of the molecule. The mRNA transcript can occasionally be "edited" after it has been transcribed.
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due tomorrow!! please help
Answers
Answer: read below!!
Explanation: So, I'm assuming you are checking off the boxes or writing yes/no.
IN ORDER!!
Archaea- Prokaryotic-Has a cell wall- Unicellular-Get nutrition from Autotrophy & Heterotrophy- Binary fission- swimming motility(swimming movement)- Examples, Halobacterium & Thermophiles
Bacteria- Prokaryotic- Unicellular- Peptidoglycan- Passive diffusion-Binary fission-Flagella- Examples: Flagella & Escherichia coli
Protista- Eukaryotes-Unicellular- Cellulose- Autotrophic and heterotrophic- flagella- Examples: Amoebas & ciliates
Fungi-Eukaryotes- Can be multicellular and/or unicellular- Biosynthesis-Heterotrophic- Spores- Growth
Plantae- Eukaryote -multicellular- Cellulose-Autotrophic-sexual or asexual reproduction- Non-motile- Examples: ((any type of plant. Moss, flowers, etc..))
Animalia -Eukaryotic - Multicellular- Does not have a cell wall- heterotrophy- Sexual reproduction- motile (walking, running, jumping)- Examples: Humans!!, Invertebrates (look up to pick creatures with spines)
I hope that was not too confusing. All the bold words are seperated as so from above ..: Eukaryotic = cell type, -, Multicellular= number of cells, -, cellulose =cell wall,... And so forth
:D
which of the following are side effects associated with antimicrobial drugs? multiple select question. allergic reactions disruption of normal microflora host cell metabolism of drug damage to host tissues due to toxicity
Answers
The side effects associated with antimicrobial drugs are the following: Allergic reactions, Disruption of normal microflora, Host cell metabolism of drug, and Damage to host tissues due to toxicity.
Antimicrobial drugs are the drugs that are used to treat infections caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. They are effective in fighting infections, but they can also cause side effects.The most common side effect associated with antimicrobial drugs is an allergic reaction. This occurs when the body's immune system overreacts to the drug. Symptoms of an allergic reaction include itching, hives, swelling, and difficulty breathing.
Antimicrobial drugs can also disrupt the normal microflora in the body. This can lead to an overgrowth of harmful bacteria, causing infections such as thrush.Host cell metabolism of the drug can also occur, causing damage to the host cell. This can lead to side effects such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Damage to host tissues due to toxicity can also occur, especially if the drug is used in high doses or for a long period of time. This can cause liver damage, kidney damage, and other serious health problems.
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if ribonucleotides were depleted from a cell during s phase, how would dna synthesis be affected? (ignore energetic considerations.)
Answers
If ribonucleotides were depleted from a cell during S phase, the DNA synthesis would be affected in the following ways: DNA synthesis or replication is the process of copying genetic information or DNA from a parent cell to a daughter cell.
The process occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle. The DNA synthesis or replication process requires four building blocks called nucleotides, including two purines (adenine and guanine) and two pyrimidines (cytosine and thymine).DNA synthesis involves the formation of a complementary strand of DNA based on a parent or template DNA strand. Each nucleotide in the parent strand is used to make the new daughter strand. If ribonucleotides were depleted from a cell during the S phase, the DNA synthesis would be affected. Ribonucleotides are nucleotides that contain ribose sugar instead of deoxyribose sugar. RNA molecules contain ribonucleotides instead of deoxyribonucleotides.The depletion of ribonucleotides from a cell during the S phase would have a severe impact on DNA synthesis. Ribonucleotides are necessary for the synthesis of the RNA primer during DNA replication. The RNA primer is essential for DNA polymerase to initiate the synthesis of a new DNA strand from the template DNA strand. Without the RNA primer, the DNA synthesis process would not be initiated, and DNA replication would not occur. Therefore, the depletion of ribonucleotides from a cell during the S phase would hinder the initiation of the DNA synthesis process, thus preventing DNA replication.
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you have now performed two different cell staining protocols with the mixed-species broth culture. what type of information does each individual give you about the types of cells present in your experimental unknown sample?
Answers
The two different cell staining protocols provide different information about the types of cells present in the experimental unknown sample. Gram staining protocol provides information about the structural differences between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
When conducting two different cell staining protocols with the mixed-species broth culture, each individual type of cell provides different information about the types of cells present in the experimental unknown sample. This is because the two different types of cell staining protocols used are Gram staining and Acid-fast staining protocols. Gram staining protocol is used to differentiate bacteria into two groups: gram-positive and gram-negative.
When using this protocol, gram-positive bacteria will appear purple due to their thick peptidoglycan layer while gram-negative bacteria will appear pink due to their thin peptidoglycan layer. Hence, this type of protocol provides information about the structural differences between the two types of bacteria. The acid-fast staining protocol is used to identify the presence of mycobacteria in a sample. When using this protocol, mycobacteria will appear red due to their high lipid content which allows the cells to retain the primary stain. Other types of bacteria will appear blue due to the counterstain used.
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Which definition best describes polygenic traits?
Answers
Polygenic traits refer to the characteristics that are controlled by multiple genes, each contributing a small part to the phenotype or observable trait.
What are Polygenic traits?Polygenic traits are traits that are determined by the interaction of multiple genes. Unlike single-gene traits, which are determined by the presence or absence of a single gene, polygenic traits are influenced by the combined effects of many genes, as well as environmental factors.
These traits often exhibit a continuous variation in the population and are influenced by both genetic and environmental factors. Examples of polygenic traits include height, skin color, and intelligence. The term "polygenic" comes from the Greek words "poly" meaning many, and "genes" meaning units of heredity.
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Write the correct name for each part
Answers
Human Skeleton Anatomy
claviclescapulathoracic vertebraelumbar vertebraepelvissacrumcoccyxfemurpatellatibiafibulaphalangesmetatarsalstarsalsphalangesmetacarpalscarpalsradiusulnahumerusxiphoid processribssternummanubriumcervical vertebraecraniumcalcaneusWhat is the Skeleton?The skeleton is the framework of bones and cartilage that provides support, shape, and protection to the body of an organism. In humans, the skeleton is made up of 206 bones, which are connected to each other by joints, ligaments, and tendons.
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A
Water has a high specific heat, which means that it requires a great deal of heat to change its temperature.
Which of the following helps support life on Earth and is a result of water's high specific heat?
OA. The water that covers over 70% of the Earth's surface stabilizes the weather and climate of the Earth.
OB.
O C.
OD.
Water is part of a continuous cycle in which liquid water falls to the Earth's surface, is evaporated back into the atmosphere, and
condenses into clouds that produce precipitation.
Water droplets tend to clump together in drops instead of spreading out in a thin film, allowing it to move through the roots of
plants and through blood vessels in the human body.
In freezing temperatures, ice rises to the top of lakes and provides an insulating layer that keeps the rest of the water from
freezing.
Answers
Explanation:
OA. The water that covers over 70% of the Earth's surface stabilizes the weather and climate of the Earth.
Water's high specific heat helps to regulate the temperature of the Earth's oceans, which in turn affects the temperature and climate of the planet. This is because water can absorb a large amount of heat without a significant increase in temperature, and it can release that heat slowly over time. As a result, the Earth's oceans act as a "heat sink," absorbing excess heat from the atmosphere during warm periods and releasing heat during cold periods. This helps to stabilize the temperature of the planet and makes it more hospitable for life.
What is a hypothesis?
(a) the way an experimental is performed
(b) a conclusion that you make about an experiment
(c) an educated guess of the answer to a question
(d) the technology used in an experiment
Answers
By research on subjects linked to scientific investigation, hypothesis is established as well-informed supposition. A hypothesis, or prediction of outcome of experiment, can be made once study has been done.
A assertion that is backed up by evidence is called a hypothesis. Here is where any investigation that seeks to translate the research questions into forecasts begins. Population, variables, and their interrelationships are examples of components. A research hypothesis is a claim that is put to the test to determine how two or more factors interact.
A list of the information's sources is provided below:
the similarities between the phenomena.historical analysis, current events, and rivals' observations.Learn more about hypothesis here:
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which of the following is a type of post-zygotic reproductive isolating mechanism? mechanical isolation increased hybrid viability reduced hybrid fertility temporal gene flow allopatric speciation
Answers
Reduced hybrid fertility is a type of post-zygotic reproductive isolating mechanism.
It occurs when hybrid offspring of two different species have reduced fertility and/or viability, which makes it difficult or impossible for them to produce offspring of their own. This mechanism helps to prevent the gene flow between different species and maintain their genetic identities. Reduced hybrid fertility can occur due to a variety of factors, such as differences in chromosome number, abnormal gamete formation, or problems during meiosis.
This mechanism is an important factor in the speciation process, as it can contribute to the development of reproductive barriers that prevent the interbreeding of different species. Other types of post-zygotic reproductive isolating mechanisms include reduced hybrid viability and hybrid breakdown.
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an individual develops atelectasis from an external pressure exerted by a tumor. which type of atelectasis would this be classified?
Answers
The type of atelectasis that would be classified in this scenario is called extrinsic or compressive atelectasis.
Extrinsic atelectasis occurs when an external pressure compresses or collapses a part of the lung, preventing it from expanding and filling with air. In this case, the tumor is causing the external pressure and therefore leading to the development of atelectasis.
Tumors that are located in or near the lungs can compress the lung tissue and cause atelectasis. Other causes of external pressure that can lead to atelectasis include fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity (pleural effusion), enlarged lymph nodes, or other masses that push against the lung tissue.
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