1.4×10−5 and 2.8×10−4

Refer to the attachment

Answer:

3/16

Total no.of beads = 16

No.of blue beads = 3

Probability of picking a blue bead = 3/16

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps

can i get braineist pls

Answer: 450

Step-by-step explanation:

say you remove the 0 out of 50, so you have 5 x 9. 5 x 9 = 45. Take the 0 you took out earlier, than add it to the end of 45, there's your answer. 450

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply:

50×9

⇛25 + 25 × 5 + 4

⇛50 + 9

⇛450 Ans.

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

jh

Answer:

7+32/77

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y-intercept = (0, -2)

Step-by-step explanation:

The y-intercept is the y-coordinate of the point (0, b) where the graph of the linear equation crosses the y-axis. The y-intercept is also the value of y when x = 0. Looking at your graph, it shows that the line crosses at point (0, -2).

Therefore, the correct answer is (0, -2).

Answer:

9 and 5 I guess enjoy.

.

Step-by-step explanation:

and yeah no explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

It's B.You want a explaination ???

The expected value of a dataset is the mean of the dataset.

The complete text is: Pamela can expect to see 1 red car and 1 green car on her way to office.

Expected value is calculated as:

[tex]\mathbf{E(x) =\sum x \times P(x)}[/tex]

For the red cars, we have:

[tex]\mathbf{Red = 0 \times 0.43 + 1 \times 0.31 + 2 \times 0.14 + 3 \times 0.10 + 4 \times 0.02}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{Red = 0.97}[/tex]

Approximate

[tex]\mathbf{Red = 1}[/tex]

For the green cars, we have:

[tex]\mathbf{Green= 0 \times 0.45 + 1 \times 0.17 + 2 \times 0.22 + 3 \times 0.07 + 4 \times 0.09}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{Green= 1.18}[/tex]

Approximate

[tex]\mathbf{Green= 1}[/tex]

Hence, the expected values of red and green is 1.

Read more about expected values at:

https://brainly.com/question/22097128

Answer:

1. Enlarge, Shrink

2. Smaller

3. Bigger

Step-by-step explanation:

Dilation is something expanding or shrinking, like how your eyes dilate.

Simply think of the scale factor as what you are multiplying the entire figure by. If you are multiplying it by let's say 2, it would double in size, thus getting larger. If you were to multiply it by 1/2, then it would decrease, or shrink, to half its original size.

Answer:

1: enlarge, shrink

2: smaller

3: bigger

Hope this helps! SO sorry if incorrect!!!!!!

Answer:

Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

a = 37 degrees ( vertical angle to 37 )

c = 180 - 37 = 143 degrees (adjacent angles add up to 180).

b = 180 - 37 - 109 = 34 degrees   (angles in a triangle sum to 180 degrees).

a = 37 degrees

c = 180 - 37 = 143 degrees.

b = 180 - 37 - 109 = 34 degrees

Answer:

26 minutes/ t=26

Step-by-step explanation:

F) c=14t

S) 364=14t

E) t=26

Answer:

They have 763 baseball cards in total

Step-by-step explanation:

7×109=763

Answer:

They have 763 baseball cards in total (BRANILIST PLEASE!!!!)

Step-by-step explanation:

You just multiply the number of friends with the number of cards each person has.

Answer:

67

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a rectangle is the product of its dimensions

The dimensions of the rectangle are: [tex]\mathbf{Length = a -5}[/tex] and [tex]\mathbf{Width = a^2 + 5a + 25}[/tex]

The area is given as:

[tex]\mathbf{Area = a^3 - 125}[/tex]

Express 125 as 5^3

[tex]\mathbf{Area = a^3 - 5^3}[/tex]

Apply difference of cubes

[tex]\mathbf{Area = (a - 5)(a^2 + 5a + 5^2)}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{Area = (a - 5)(a^2 + 5a + 25)}[/tex]

The area of a rectangle is:

[tex]\mathbf{Area = Length \times Width}[/tex]

So, by comparison:

[tex]\mathbf{Length = a -5}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{Width = a^2 + 5a + 25}[/tex]

Read more about areas at:

https://brainly.com/question/3518080

Answer:

8km

Step-by-step explanation:

it is 8km because it is not that much bigger than 6km

Answer:

C) 8 km

Step-by-step explanation:

x is another leg next to 6.

10 is the hypotenuse.

a^2 + b^2 = c^2

a & b are legs and c is the hypotenuse.

x^2 + 6^2 = 10^2

x^2 + 36 = 100

x^2 = 100 - 36

x^2 = 64

√x^2 = √64

x = 8

P.S It may look just slightly different, but your teacher or the program did not make it up to scale.

Hope This Helps! •v•

Answer:

2

9/5

Step-by-step explanation:

2/1 = 2

18/10 (divide by 2 up and down) = 9/5

Answer:

Inequality: 7.5v+55≥100

Answer: v≥6

Step-by-step explanation:

Have a good day :)

The inequality for the given situation is 7.5v+55≤100.

Given that, Mamadou receives 55 rewards points just for signing up. He earns 7.5 points for each visit to the movie theater. He needs at least 100 points for a free movie ticket.

Inequalities are the mathematical expressions in which both sides are not equal. In inequality, unlike in equations, we compare two values. The equal sign in between is replaced by less than (or less than or equal to), greater than (or greater than or equal to), or not equal to sign.

The number of visits Mamadou can make to earn his first free movie ticket is v.

The inequality for the given situation is 7.5v+55≤100

Subtract 55 on both the sides of inequality.

That is, 7.5v+55-55≤100-55

⇒ 7.5v≤45

⇒ v=45/7.5

⇒ v=6

Therefore, the inequality for the given situation is 7.5v+55≤100.

To learn more about the inequality visit:

https://brainly.com/question/20383699.

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Explanation:

The rule used is [tex]\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)^{-c} = \left(\frac{b}{a}\right)^{c}[/tex]

That rule says to go from a negative exponent to a positive exponent, we apply the reciprocal of the fraction.

So,

[tex]\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{-5} = \left(\frac{3}{1}\right)^{5} = 3^5[/tex]

Answer:

6:9,2:3

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry I Only knew this much

Answer:

well to make life easier

You can always just simplify the given ratio

12:18 is basically 2:3 and we can use that as a base line

so we got

2:3

6:9

12:18

24:36

48: 72

It goes on you can just multiply by 2

Answer:

No; the absolute value of a negative number is equal to its opposite

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D 40,000nm

Step-by-step explanation: 1nm/10^-9m * 10^-6/1um = 10^3 nm/um

Therefore in 40 microns there are:

40um * 10^3 nm/um = 40 * 10^3 nm = 40,000 nm

The human hair is 40,000 nanometers wide.

Option D is the correct answer.

Given,

A human hair is approximately 40 microns (um) wide.

1 um is equal to [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] meters (m)

1 nanometer (nm) is equal to [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] m.

We need to find how many nanometers wide is human hair.

We can add the exponents if we have the same base.

Example:

a² x a³ = [tex]a^{(2+3)}[/tex] = [tex]a^{5}[/tex]

[tex]a^{-2}[/tex] x [tex]a^{-3}[/tex] = [tex]a^{(-2 +( -3))}[/tex] = [tex]a^{-5}[/tex]

We have,

Human hair = 40 microns (um) wide.

And,

1 um = [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] m

1 nm = [tex]10^{-9}[/tex] m

[tex]10^{-9}[/tex] m = 1 nm

Multiplying by 10³ on both sides.

[tex]10^{-9}[/tex] x 10³ = 10³ nm

[tex]10^{(-9+3)}[/tex] = 10³ nm

[tex]10^{-6}[/tex] m = 10³ nm

1 um = [tex]10^{-6}[/tex]m

1 um = 10³ nm

Human hair = 40 um

1 um = 10³ nm

Multiplying 40 on both sides.

40 x 1 um = 40 x 10³ nm

40 um = 40 x 1000 nm

40 um = 40,000 nm

Thus human hair is 40,000 nanometers wide.

Learn more about the conversion of microns to nanometers here:

https://brainly.com/question/14663277

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Answer:

516/990=0.52121212121212

Step-by-step explanation:

so b is the answer

Answer:

its the yoyo

Step-by-step explanation:

it was right on the khawn acdemy thing.