A silver atom at rest has a mass of about 1. 8×10−25kg. What is the rest energy of a silver atom?

The temperature of an ideal gas being quasi-statically compressed by 700 j of work to one-third of its initial volume can be found using the first law of thermodynamics, which states that the change in internal energy of a system is equal to the work done on the system plus the heat added to the system.

Since the gas is considered ideal, the heat added is assumed to be zero. Therefore, the change in internal energy is simply equal to the work done, which is 700 j. Since internal energy is proportional to temperature, the temperature of the gas can be found by dividing the work done by the gas's specific heat capacity.

The temperature will increase as the gas is compressed, and the final temperature can be determined by multiplying the initial temperature by the ratio of the final volume to the initial volume. In this case, the final temperature would be three times the initial temperature.

To know more about thermodynamics, click here:

https://brainly.com/question/1368306

#SPJ4

It takes 10 seconds for the stone to travel 294 m below the point of projection. That's how long it take to travel.

The equation to use to find how long it take to travel 294m below the point of projection is:

4.9t² - 19.6t - 294 = 0

We need the quadratic equation

t = [-b ± √(b² - 4ac)] / (2a)]

a = 4.9, b = -19.6, and c = -294.

t = [19.6 ± √((-19.6)² - 44.9(-294))] / (2×4.9)

t = [19.6 ±√384.16 + 5745.6)] / 9.8

t = [19.6 ± √(6129.76)] / 9.8

t = [19.6 ± 78.3] / 9.8

The possible answers are;

t1 = (19.6 + 78.3) / 9.8 = 10 seconds

t2 = (19.6 - 78.3) / 9.8 = -6 seconds

considerinf that the answer cannot be in the negative, therefore t₁  is the answer.

Find more exercises on how long it takes to travel;

https://brainly.com/question/4836382

#SPJ1

You have to lift the 10kg bag of salt approximately 2.55 meters to do 250J of work.

To determine how far you have to lift a 10kg bag of salt to do 250J of work, we need to use the work-energy theorem and the formula for gravitational potential energy. The work-energy theorem states that the work done on an object is equal to the change in its potential energy. The formula for gravitational potential energy is:

PE = m * g * h

where PE is the potential energy, m is the mass (10kg), g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s²), and h is the height the object is lifted.

Since the work done is 250J, we can set the potential energy equal to the work done:

250J = 10kg * 9.8 m/s² * h

Now, we need to solve for h:

250J = 98 kg*m/s² * h
h = 250J / 98 kg*m/s²
h ≈ 2.55 meters

For more about work:

https://brainly.com/question/18094932

#SPJ11

The magnitude of the electric field at a location 2.0 cm away from the fly with 3.0 x 10^-10 C of positive charge is 5.39 x 10^(-2) N/C. The direction of the electric field is radially outward from the fly.

To find the magnitude and direction of the electric field at a location 2.0 cm away from the fly, we need to use the formula for the electric field due to a point charge:

E = k * Q / r^2

where E is the electric field, k is the electrostatic constant (8.99 x 10^9 N m^2/C^2), Q is the charge of the fly (3.0 x 10^-10 C), and r is the distance from the charge (2.0 cm or 0.02 m).

Step 1: Convert distance to meters: 2.0 cm = 0.02 m

Step 2: Plug in the values into the formula:

E = (8.99 x 10^9 N m^2/C^2) * (3.0 x 10^-10 C) / (0.02 m)^2

Step 3: Calculate the electric field magnitude:

E = 5.39 x 10^(-2) N/C

Since the fly has a positive charge, the electric field will be directed radially outward from the fly. This means that at any point 2.0 cm away from the fly, the electric field will be pointing away from the fly in a direction perpendicular to the line connecting the fly and the point.

Know more about electric field click here:

https://brainly.com/question/8971780

#SPJ11

In the process of making pancakes, the three steps that best show that new substances are created are: Steps 3, 4, and 5. The correct option is B.

These steps involve seeing bubbles form as the pancake starts to harden, waiting until the bubbles stop forming, and flipping the pancake so the other side can darken and harden.

During Step 3, the formation of bubbles indicates a chemical reaction taking place, as the heat causes the pancake batter to release carbon dioxide gas. This leads to the creation of a new substance: the cooked pancake. Step 4, waiting for the bubbles to stop forming, further demonstrates the chemical changes occurring as the batter continues to cook and transform.

Lastly, in Step 5, flipping the pancake allows the other side to darken and harden, completing the cooking process and solidifying the new substance: a fully cooked pancake. The correct option is B.

To know more about substances, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30667005#

#SPJ11

Answer:We can use the kinematic equation:

v = vo + at

where:

v = final velocity (what we want to find)

vo = initial velocity (which is zero since the ball is dropped)

a = acceleration due to gravity (-9.8 m/s^2, negative since it is acting in the opposite direction of the ball's motion)

t = time (4 seconds)

Substituting the values, we get:

v = 0 + (-9.8 m/s^2)(4 s)

v = -39.2 m/s

Note that the negative sign indicates that the ball is moving downward.

Explanation:

The power dissipated in the light bulb if it carries a current of 3i is 9p.

The power dissipated by a light bulb is given by the equation P = I²R, where I is the current flowing through the bulb and R is its resistance. Since the same light bulb is being used, its resistance remains constant.

When the current flowing through the bulb is increased to 3i, the power dissipated is given by P' = (3i)²R = 9i²R = 9P,

where P is the power dissipated when the current was i.

Therefore, the power dissipated in the light bulb is multiplied by a factor of 9 when the current is increased to 3i.

Assuming the resistance of the light bulb remains constant, we can use Ohm's law to find the new current when the current is tripled. Ohm's law states that the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage applied across it and inversely proportional to its resistance. Therefore, when the current is tripled, the voltage across the bulb will also triple since the resistance remains constant.

To know more about the Light bulb, here

https://brainly.com/question/2288858

#SPJ4

The recommended RPM for turning a 1.00" diameter mild steel workpiece using an HSS cutting tool would be approximately 400 RPM.

To calculate the RPM for turning a 1.00" diameter workpiece made of mild steel using an HSS (high-speed steel) cutting tool, you can use the following formula:

RPM = (Cutting Speed x 4) / Workpiece Diameter

For mild steel, the recommended cutting speed with HSS tools is approximately 100 surface feet per minute (SFM). Using this value and the given workpiece diameter, we can calculate the RPM:

RPM = (100 SFM x 4) / 1.00" Diameter

RPM = 400 / 1.00

RPM ≈ 400

So, the recommended RPM for turning a 1.00" diameter mild steel workpiece using an HSS cutting tool would be approximately 400 RPM.

To learn more about speed, refer below:

https://brainly.com/question/28224010

#SPJ11

Answer:

To solve this problem, we can use the equation:

distance = initial velocity x time + 1/2 x acceleration x time^2

First, we need to find the initial distance between the two cars. The speeding car travels for 1 second before the police car begins pursuit, so its initial distance from the parked police car is:

initial distance = 41 m/s x 1 s = 41 m

Now we can use the equation to find the time it takes for the police car to catch up to the speeding car:

distance = initial velocity x time + 1/2 x acceleration x time^2

527 m = 0 m/s x t + 1/2 x 7.5 m/s^2 x t^2

Simplifying:

t = sqrt((2 x 527 m) / 7.5 m/s^2) = 12.92 s

So the police car catches up to the speeding car after 12.92 seconds. Now we can use the equation:

final velocity = initial velocity + acceleration x time

to find the velocity of the police car when it catches up to the speeding car:

final velocity = 0 m/s + 7.5 m/s^2 x 12.92 s = 96.9 m/s

Therefore, the velocity of the police car when it catches up to the speeding car is 96.9 m/s.

Explanation:

Answer:

Thermal Energy

Explanation:

The concept or principle used to determine that the two rock types were deposited during the same time period is the principle of faunal succession.

This principle states that fossils of similar organisms found in rocks from different locations were deposited during the same time period, as the distribution of fossils in the rock layers is related to the relative ages of the rocks.

By finding the same fossil trilobites in both the Indiana and Colorado limestone rocks, it can be inferred that the rocks were deposited during the same time period and were likely part of the same geologic formation.

To know more about faunal succession, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/13674871#

#SPJ11

At point A, the interference between the two sources is constructive. This is because the two waves are in phase at this point, meaning the peaks and troughs of the two waves line up.

When this happens, the amplitude of the combined wave is greater than the amplitude of either individual wave. This increased amplitude results in a stronger wave, which is an example of constructive interference.

Constructive interference can also be caused when two waves have a phase difference of 0, 180, or multiples of 180. In this case, the two waves have a phase difference of 0, resulting in constructive interference.

Know more about amplitude  here

https://brainly.com/question/8662436#

#SPJ11

The force required to move the 200-newton rock using the lever is 300 N.

We can use the principle of mechanical advantage to determine the force required to move the rock using the lever. Mechanical advantage is the ratio of the output force (the force required to move the rock) to the input force (the force applied by the person). It is given by the formula:

mechanical advantage = output force / input force

In this case, the input force is 60 N and the output force is the force required to move the rock, which we can calculate as follows:

output force = input force x mechanical advantage

The mechanical advantage of a lever is determined by the ratio of the distance from the input force to the fulcrum (the pivot point) to the distance from the output force to the fulcrum. This is known as the lever arm ratio.

In this question, we are told that the person moves the lever 1 m and the rock moves 0.2 m. Therefore, the lever arm ratio is:

lever arm ratio = output distance / input distance

= 0.2 m / 1 m

= 0.2

The mechanical advantage is the inverse of the lever arm ratio:

mechanical advantage = 1 / lever arm ratio

= 1 / 0.2

= 5

Substituting this value in the formula for output force, we get:

output force = input force x mechanical advantage

= 60 N x 5

= 300 N

To know more about lever, here

https://brainly.com/question/3977835

#SPJ4

Assuming that the meterstick is in equilibrium, the sum of the forces acting on it must be zero. At the top of the meterstick, the tension in the string is pulling upward with a force of T, while the weight of the meterstick is pulling downward with a force of mg, where m is the mass of the meterstick and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Since the meterstick is vertical, the weight is acting straight down and the tension is acting at an angle of 90 degrees. Therefore, we can use the following equation to find the tension:

T = mg/cosθ

where θ is the angle between the string and the meterstick (which is 90 degrees in this case). Plugging in the values given:

T = (0.5 kg)(9.8 m/s^2)/cos(90°) = 0 N

Therefore, the tension in the string when the meterstick is vertical is 0 N.

To know more about meterstick refer here

https://brainly.com/question/29690562#

#SPJ11

The acceleration of the bar just after the switch is closed is [tex]6.91 m/s^2[/tex]. When the bar's speed is 2.0 m/s, its acceleration is zero. The terminal speed of the bar is 1.49 m/s.

To solve this problem, we will use the equation of motion for an object under the influence of a force and the equation for the current in a circuit under the influence of an emf and resistance.

a) Just after the switch is closed, the current in the circuit will be given by Ohm's Law:

I = emf / R = 12 V / 5.0 Ω = 2.4 A

The bar will experience a magnetic force due to the magnetic field that is perpendicular to its motion. The magnetic force can be calculated using the formula:

F = BIL

where B is the magnetic field, I is the current, and L is the length of the bar. The bar will experience a force in the direction opposite to its motion. Therefore, the acceleration of the bar can be calculated using Newton's second law:

a = F / m = (BIL) / m

Substituting the given values, we get:

a = (2.4 T)(2.4 A)(0.36 m) / 0.90 kg = [tex]6.91 m/s^2[/tex]

Therefore, the acceleration of the bar just after the switch is closed is [tex]6.91 m/s^2[/tex].

b) To calculate the acceleration of the bar when its speed is 2.0 m/s, we need to use the equation of motion:

v = u + at

where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity (which is zero in this case), a is the acceleration, and t is the time.

We can rearrange this equation to solve for time:

t = (v - u) / a = v / a

Substituting the given values, we get:

t = 2.0/ 6.91 = 0.289 s

Now we can use the equation of motion again to calculate the distance traveled by the bar during this time:

[tex]$s = ut + \frac{1}{2}at^2 = \frac{1}{2}at^2$[/tex]

Substituting the given values, we get:

[tex]$s = \frac{1}{2}(6.91 , \mathrm{m/s^2})(0.289 , \mathrm{s})^2 = 0.115 , \mathrm{m}$[/tex]

Therefore, the distance traveled by the bar when its speed is 2.0 m/s is 0.115 m. To calculate the acceleration, we can use the formula:

a = F / m = (BIL) / m

Substituting the given values and using the fact that the bar is now moving at a constant speed (i.e., the net force on the bar is zero), we get:

a = 0

Therefore, the acceleration of the bar when its speed is 2.0 m/s is zero.

c) The terminal speed of the bar can be calculated using the formula:

[tex]$v_{\text{terminal}} = \frac{\text{emf}}{\text{BRL}} \cdot \left(1 - e^{-\frac{\text{BRL}}{\text{m}}}\right)$[/tex]

where emf is the emf of the battery, B is the magnetic field, R is the resistance of the bar, L is the length of the bar, and m is the mass of the bar.

Substituting the given values, we get:

[tex]$v_{\text{terminal}} = \frac{12 , \mathrm{V}}{(2.4 , \mathrm{T})(5.0 , \Omega)(0.36 , \mathrm{m})} \cdot \left(1 - e^{-\frac{(2.4 , \mathrm{T})(5.0 , \Omega)(0.36 , \mathrm{m})}{0.90 , \mathrm{kg}}}\right)$[/tex]

Simplifying this expression, we get:

v_terminal = 1.49 m/s

Therefore, the terminal speed of the bar is 1.49 m/s.

To learn more about acceleration

https://brainly.com/question/12550364

#SPJ4

The wavelength of the emitted light is approximately 1.05 micrometers.

We can use the equation:

$\lambda = \frac{hc}{E}$

where $\lambda$ is the wavelength, $h$ is Planck's constant, $c$ is the speed of light, and $E$ is the energy of the transition.

First, we need to convert the energies from electron volts (eV) to joules (J):

$E_1 = 1.67 \text{ eV} \times 1.602 \times 10^{-19} \text{ J/eV} = 2.68 \times 10^{-19} \text{ J}$

$E_2 = 0.50 \text{ eV} \times 1.602 \times 10^{-19} \text{ J/eV} = 8.01 \times 10^{-20} \text{ J}$

Now, we can calculate the wavelength:

$\lambda = \frac{hc}{E_1 - E_2} = \frac{(6.626 \times 10^{-34} \text{ J s})(2.998 \times 10^{8} \text{ m/s})}{2.68 \times 10^{-19} \text{ J} - 8.01 \times 10^{-20} \text{ J}} \approx \boxed{1.05 \times 10^{-6} \text{ m}}$

To know more about Planck's constant refer here

https://brainly.com/question/30763530#

#SPJ11

The duration for the electron to travel 30 mm in a uniform electric field with a field strength of 150 kV/m is approximately 6.37 x 10⁻⁸ seconds.

The rate at which velocity changes with respect to time.

To solve this problem, we can use the equation for the acceleration of an electron in an electric field:

a = F/m = qE/m

where a is the acceleration, F is the force, m is the mass of the electron, q is the charge of the electron, and E is the electric field strength.

We can rearrange this equation to solve for the time it takes for the electron to travel a certain distance:

t = √(2d/a)

where d is the distance traveled.

Plugging in the given values, we get:

a = (1.602 x 10⁻¹⁹ C)(150 x 10³ V/m)/(9.109 x 10⁻³¹ kg) = 2.62 x 10¹⁴ m/s²

d = 30 mm = 0.03 m

t = √(2 x 0.03 m / 2.62 x 10¹⁴ m/s²) = 6.37 x 10⁻⁸ s

Therefore, the duration for the electron to travel 30 mm in a uniform electric field with a field strength of 150 kV/m is approximately 6.37 x 10⁻⁸ seconds.

Explanation: The acceleration of the electron in the electric field is independent of its initial velocity. Hence, the electron will continue to accelerate at a constant rate until it reaches the end of the distance. Once it reaches the end, it will have attained a maximum velocity and will continue to move at a constant velocity if there are no other forces acting on it. Therefore, the time taken to travel the distance depends only on the acceleration and the distance traveled.

Learn more about acceleration on:

https://brainly.com/question/25876659

#SPJ4

Answer:

35

Explanation:

Let Angle of Incident ray be i.

Let Angle of Reflected ray be r.

By laws of reflection

i = r

Here

i + r = 70

i + i = 70

2i = 70

i = 70/2

i = 35

Hence

The angle of incidence for this ray is 35.

(a) Using a_rad = [tex]\omega^{2r[/tex]: Approximately 100.53 m/s²

(b) Using a_rad = [tex]v^{2/r[/tex]: Approximately 31.42 m/s²

To solve the problem, let's first convert the angular acceleration from revolutions per minute (rpm) to radians per second squared (rad/s²):

Given:

Diameter of the wheel (D) = 40.0 cm

Radius of the wheel (r) = D/2 = 20.0 cm = 0.20 m

Angular acceleration (α) = 4 rpm

(a) Using the relationship a_rad = [tex]\omega^{2r[/tex]:

The angular acceleration (α) can be converted to angular velocity (ω) using the formula:

ω = αt, where t is the time taken to complete two revolutions.

Since the wheel starts from rest, the time taken to complete two revolutions is given by:

t = (2 rev) / (4 rpm) = 0.5 min = 30 s

Now we can calculate the angular velocity (ω):

ω = αt = (4 rpm) × (2π rad/1 min) × (1 min/60 s) × (30 s) = 4π rad/s

Using the relationship a_rad = [tex]\omega^{2r[/tex], we can calculate the radial acceleration:

a_rad = [tex]\omega^{2r[/tex] = (4π rad/s)² × 0.20 m

a_rad = 16π² × 0.20 m ≈ 100.53 m/s²

Therefore, the radial acceleration of a point on the rim, calculated using a_rad = [tex]\omega^{2r[/tex], is approximately 100.53 m/s².

(b) Using the relationship a_rad = [tex]v^{2/r[/tex]:

The wheel starts from rest, so its initial linear velocity (v) is zero.

The final linear velocity (v) can be calculated using the formula:

v = ωr

The time taken to complete two revolutions is already calculated as 30 seconds, so we can find the final angular velocity (ω) as follows:

ω = αt = 4π rad/s (same as before)

Now we can calculate the final linear velocity (v):

v = ωr = (4π rad/s) × 0.20 m ≈ 2.513 m/s

Using the relationship a_rad = [tex]v^{2/r[/tex], we can calculate the radial acceleration:

a_rad = [tex]v^{2/r[/tex] = (2.513 m/s)² / 0.20 m

a_rad ≈ 31.42 m/s²

Therefore, the radial acceleration of a point on the rim, calculated using a_rad = [tex]v^{2/r[/tex], is approximately 31.42 m/s².

To know more about angular acceleration refer here

https://brainly.com/question/30237820#

#SPJ11

The distance he pulled the cart for is 5 meters, as that is the height of the hill.

The work done by the man to pull the cart up the hill is given by the formula W = F dcos(theta), where W is the work done, F is the force applied, d is the distance traveled, and theta is the angle between the force and the direction of motion.

Since the force and the direction of motion are in the same direction, theta = 0. Therefore, W = F * d.

Substituting the given values, we get W = 50 N * 5 m = 250 J. This is the amount of work done by the man. The distance he pulled the cart for is 5 meters, as that is the height of the hill.

To know more about motion, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/22810476#

#SPJ11

Yes, the presence of water on top of the glass block will affect the apparent position of the object.

Total apparent depth of the block and water is 8 cm.

This is because the light rays passing through the water will refract or bend as they enter the glass block, and then bend again as they exit the glass and enter the air above.

To determine the apparent position of the object, you will need to know the refractive indices of water and glass. The refractive index of water is 1.33, and the refractive index of glass is typically around 1.5.

Assuming the light rays are traveling perpendicular to the surfaces of the block, the apparent depth of the block as seen from above the water line will be:

apparent depth = actual depth / refractive index

For the water, the apparent depth is simply its actual depth, since the light rays are not refracted when passing from air to water.

So, for the glass block:

apparent depth = 6 cm / 1.5 = 4 cm

And for the water:

apparent depth = 4 cm

Therefore, the total apparent depth of the block and water is 4 + 4 = 8 cm. If an object is placed below the water line but above the top surface of the block, its apparent position will appear to be shifted upward by this amount.

Find out more on apparent position here: https://brainly.com/question/30354612

#SPJ1

TimeTime when energy stored in the capacitor will be half of its initial value=7.3s

To find the time at which the energy stored in the capacitor will be half of its initial value, we can use the formula for the time constant (τ) of an RC circuit and the fact that energy is halved when the voltage across the capacitor is reduced to 1/√2 of its initial value.

The time constant (τ) of the RC circuit is given by τ = R * C, where R is the resistance and C is the capacitance.

τ = (1.3 * 10^6 Ω) * (8.1 * 10^-6 F) = 10.53 seconds

Now, we can use the formula for discharging a capacitor: V(t) = V_initial * e^(-t/τ)

We need to find the time (t) when V(t) = V_initial / √2. So:

V_initial / √2 = V_initial * e^(-t/10.53)

Divide both sides by V_initial:

1 / √2 = e^(-t/10.53)

Take the natural logarithm of both sides:

-ln(√2) = -t / 10.53

Now, solve for t:

t = 10.53 * ln(√2) ≈ 7.3 seconds

So, the energy stored in the capacitor will be half of its initial value at approximately 7.3 seconds.

Visit https://brainly.com/question/29301875 to learn more about capacitors

#SPJ11

The row that links both the photoelectric effect and electron diffraction to the properties of waves and particles is the first row, which includes the terms "Particle property" and "Wave property".

The photoelectric effect refers to the phenomenon where electrons are emitted from a material when light shines on it, while electron diffraction refers to the scattering of electrons by a crystal lattice.

Both of these phenomena can be explained using the wave-particle duality of matter, which suggests that matter can exhibit both particle-like and wave-like properties. The photoelectric effect can be explained by treating light as a particle (photon) that transfers energy to an electron, while electron diffraction can be explained by treating electrons as waves that interfere with each other.

Understanding the properties of waves and particles is essential in understanding these phenomena and many other fundamental concepts in physics. The study of wave-particle duality has also led to the development of quantum mechanics, which is a cornerstone of modern physics. The correct option is "Particle property" and "Wave property".

For more about Particle property:

https://brainly.com/question/16550892

#SPJ11

Answer:

Explanation: Thermal energy is transferred through water by conduction, convection, and radiation. Conduction occurs when heat is transferred through direct contact between water molecules with different thermal energy. Convection occurs when warmer water rises to the top and cooler water sinks to the bottom, creating a circular motion that distributes heat. Radiation is the transfer of energy through electromagnetic waves, but it is not significant in water due to poor conduction. The specific mechanism that dominates heat transfer depends on various factors such as temperature gradient, depth, and presence of other materials.

The actual answer may differ depending on the true values of those variables.

The approximate velocity of the object at 5 seconds can be determined using the following steps:

1. Identify the given information: You are asked to find the velocity of the object at a specific time (5 seconds).

2. Determine the equation needed:

To find the velocity at a certain time, you will need to use the equation:

 v = u + at,

where

v is the final velocity,

u is the initial velocity,

a is the acceleration, and

t is the time.

3. Gather necessary data: To use the equation, you need to know the initial velocity (u) and the acceleration (a) of the object. This information is not provided in your question,

so it is not possible to give an exact answer. However, I will assume some values for u and a to provide an example calculation.

4. Example calculation: Let's assume the initial velocity (u) is 0 m/s and the acceleration (a) is 2 m/s². Plug these values, along with the given time (t = 5 seconds), into the equation:

v = u + at

v = 0 + (2 × 5)

v = 0 + 10

v = 10 m/s

In this example, the approximate velocity of the object at 5 seconds is 10 m/s. Note that this answer is based on the assumed values for initial velocity and acceleration,

So the actual answer may differ depending on the true values of those variables.

To know more about approximate velocity refer here

brainly.com/question/28605419#

#SPJ11

The probability of each possible sample is (sample) = 1/495. The probability of each possible sample is P(sample) = 1/28,544.

(a) The probability of each possible sample of size n=4 being drawn from a finite population of size N=12 can be calculated using the formula:

P(sample) = (number of ways to choose the sample) / (total number of possible samples)

The number of ways to choose a sample of size 4 from a population of size 12 is:

C(12,4) = 12! / (4! * 8!) = 495

The total number of possible samples of size 4 from a population of size 12 is:

C(12,4) = 495

Therefore, the probability of each possible sample is:

P(sample) = 1/495

(b) The probability of each possible sample of size n=5 being drawn from a finite population of size N=22 can be calculated using the same formula:

P(sample) = (number of ways to choose the sample) / (total number of possible samples)

The number of ways to choose a sample of size 5 from a population of size 22 is:

C(22,5) = 22! / (5! * 17!) = 28,544

The total number of possible samples of size 5 from a population of size 22 is:

C(22,5) = 28,544

Therefore, the probability of each possible sample is:

P(sample) = 1/28,544

Learn more about probability here:-

https://brainly.com/question/30034780

#SPJ11

The magnitude of the angular momentum of the point mass about the center of the circle is [tex]$7.1676\ \text{kg}\ \text{m}^2/\text{s}$[/tex].

The angular momentum of a rotating object is defined as the product of its moment of inertia and its angular velocity with respect to an axis of rotation. In this case, we have a point mass of 3.2 kg traveling around a circle of radius 0.45 m with an angular velocity of 11.0 rad/s.

To calculate the angular momentum of the point mass about the center of the circle, we first need to find its moment of inertia. For a point-mass rotating around an axis passing through its center of mass, the moment of inertia is simply the mass times the square of the radius, i.e., [tex]I = mr^2[/tex]. Thus, the moment of inertia of our point mass is:

[tex]I = (3.2 kg) \times (0.45 m)^2 = 0.6516 kg m^2[/tex]

Now, we can calculate the angular momentum L of the point-mass about the center of the circle using the formula:

L = I x w

where w is the angular velocity of the point mass. Plugging in the values we have:

[tex]$L = (0.6516 \text{ kg m}^2) \times (11.0 \text{ rad/s}) = 7.1676 \text{ kg m}^2/\text{s}$[/tex]

This value indicates the amount of rotational motion the point mass possesses, and it is conserved as long as there are no external torques acting on the system.

To learn more about magnitude

https://brainly.com/question/14452091

#SPJ4

No, it is not possible to play the lowest string with your finger on any of the frets shown and hear the same frequency as the highest string.

The frets on a stringed instrument, such as a guitar, are placed in specific positions along the neck to produce different pitches or frequencies when the strings are pressed against them.

Each fret represents a specific note, and when you press a string against a particular fret, you effectively shorten the vibrating length of the string, which increases the frequency and raises the pitch of the sound produced.

As you move your finger along the fretboard, the pitch of the note played changes.

The lowest string on a guitar, typically the thickest string, has the lowest pitch or frequency when played open (without pressing any frets). As you press down on higher frets, you increase the pitch of the note.

The highest string on a guitar, typically the thinnest string, has the highest pitch or frequency when played open.

Therefore, pressing a fret on the lowest string will never produce the same frequency as the open (unfretted) highest string because the length and tension of the strings are different, resulting in different natural frequencies for each string.

To know more about string refer here

https://brainly.com/question/946868#

#SPJ11

The latitude that receives the most direct rays of the sun year-round is the equator, which has a latitude of 0 degrees.

Due to the Earth's axial tilt, the sun's rays strike the Earth at different angles at various latitudes throughout the year. Near the equator, the sun's rays are nearly perpendicular to the Earth's surface, resulting in a more direct and intense sunlight.

At the equator, the sun is positioned directly overhead at least once a year during the equinoxes (around March 21st and September 21st). This means that the equator receives the most direct and concentrated sunlight throughout the year compared to other latitudes.

As one moves away from the equator towards higher latitudes, the angle at which the sun's rays hit the Earth becomes progressively steeper, resulting in less direct and more diffuse sunlight. This is why regions closer to the poles experience more significant variations in daylight and seasonal changes in sunlight intensity.

To know more about latitude refer here

https://brainly.com/question/121970#

#SPJ11

The vertical position of the cannonball at the time tg/2 is 87.5 meters above ground level.

The horizontal motion of the cannonball is independent of its vertical motion. Since the cannonball is fired horizontally, its initial vertical velocity is zero, and it only experiences a downward acceleration due to gravity.

We can use the following kinematic equation to determine the time it takes for the cannonball to hit the ground:

h = v₀_y * t + (1/2) * g * t²,

where;

Solving for t, we get:

t = √(2*h/g)

Plugging in the given values, we get:

t = √(2*70/9.8) = 3.78 s

Therefore, the cannonball hits the ground at time t = 3.78 s.

Now, let's consider the vertical motion of the cannonball. At the time tg/2, the time elapsed since the cannon was fired is tg/2.

The vertical position of the cannonball at this time can be calculated using the following kinematic equation:

y = h + v₀_y * t + (1/2) * g * t²,

Since v₀_y is zero, we have:

y = h + (1/2) * g * (tg/2)²

Plugging in the given values, we get:

y = 70 + (1/2) * 9.8 * (3.78/2)² = 87.5 m (rounded to one decimal place)

Learn more about vertical position here: https://brainly.com/question/21026296

#SPJ1