An ideal gas initially is allowed to expand isothermally until its volume of 1.6 L and pressure is 5 kPa, undergoes isothermal expansion until its volume is 8 L and its pressure is 1 kPa.
1. Calculate the work done by the gas. Answer in units of kJ.
2. Find the heat added to the gas during this process. Answer in units of kJ.

Answer:

1.11 watts

Explanation:

power =  joules / sec

           184/45 = 1.11 Watts

The net force on q₃ will be 17.51 N. The net force is the algebraic sum of the two forces on the pleading q₃

The force of attraction between two charges, according to Coulomb's law, is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

The force,by the charge q₁ on the q₃;

[tex]\rm F_{31}} = \frac{Kq_1q_3}{r^2} \\\\ \rm F_{31}} = \frac{9 \times 10^9 \times -28.1 \times 10^{-6}\times \times -47.9 \times 10^{-6}}{(0.600)^2} \\\\ F_{31}} =33.64 \ N[/tex]

The force,by the charge q₂ on the q₃;

[tex]\rm F_{32}} = \frac{Kq_2q_3}{r^2} \\\\ \rm F_{32}} = \frac{9 \times 10^9 \times 25.5 \times 10^{-6}\times \times -74.9\times 10^{-6}}{(0.300)^2} \\\\ F_{32}} =-19.09 \ N[/tex]

The net force is the sum of the two forces;

[tex]\rm F_{net}=F_{32}+F_{31}\\\\\ \rm F_{net}=36.6-19.9 \\\\ \rm F_{net}=17.51 \ N[/tex]

Hence, the net force on q₃ will be 17.51 N.

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I think its -88 on acellus

Answer:

north and south poles

Explanation:

The statement that is true about height and strength is that In boys, the strength spurt occurs about a year after their height spurt

Puberty is the transformational change that occur between childhood and adulthood. It is a stage of maturity

Height of a person is the distance from the feet of a person to the peak or his head.

Strength is the ability of a person to be very strong and can do vigorous things.

Therefore, The statement that is true about height and strength is that In boys, the strength spurt occurs about a year after their height spurt.

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Answer:

Answer:

Magnetism is the force of attraction or repulsion between substances.

Magnetism is defined as an attractive and repulsive phenomenon produced by a moving electric charge. The affected region around a moving charge consists of both an electric field and a magnetic field. The most familiar example of magnetism is a bar magnet, which is attracted to a magnetic field and can attract or repel other magnets.Magnetism is caused by the electromagnetic force, which is one of the four fundamental forces of nature. Any moving electric charge (electric current) generates a magnetic field perpendicular to it.

Light travels faster in air than in glass because air is an optically rarer medium.

The term speed of light refers to the speed with which light travels through diverse materials. We know that light travels faster in air than in glass owing the the difference in the nature and composition of the two materials.

Hence, the explanation of the student concerning the differences in angles does not account for the differences in the speed of light in materials. Light travels faster in air than in glass because air is an optically rarer medium.

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(a) The speed of the water at point B  is 10 m/s and the speed at point C is 5 m/s.

(b) The pressure of the water at point B is 4.96 bars and the pressure at point C is 5.335 bars.

The speed of the water at point B is determined from continuity equation as shown below;

Q = AV

A₁V₁ = A₂V₂

Since, A₁ = A₂ =  3 m²

V₁ = V₂ = 10 m/s

Thus, the speed of the water at point B  is 10 m/s.

A₁V₁ = A₃V₃

A₁V₁  = (2A₁)V₃

V₃ = (A₁V₁) / 2A₁

V₃ = V₁ / 2

V₃ = 10/2

V₃ = 5 m/s

Thus, the speed of the water at point C  is 5 m/s.

The pressure of the water at point B is determined by appying Bernoulli's equation as shown below;

P₁ + ¹/₂ρV₁² + ρgh₁ = P₂ + ¹/₂ρV₂² + ρgh₂

where;

300,000 + ¹/₂(1000)(10)² + (1000)(9.8)(20) = P₂ + ¹/₂(1000)(10)²

546,000 = P₂ + 50,000

P₂ = 496,000 Pa

P₂ = 4.96 bars

P₁ + ¹/₂ρV₁² + ρgh₁ = P₃ + ¹/₂ρV₃² + ρgh₃

546,000 = P₃ + ¹/₂(1000)(5)²

546,000 = P₃ + 12,500

P₃ = 533,500 Pa

P₃ = 5.335 bars

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Answer:

From this equation, it can be said that the escape velocity depends on the radius of the planet and the mass of the planet only and not on the mass of the body. Escape Velocity of Earth= 11.2 km/s. This was the derivation of the escape velocity of earth or any other planet.

Explanation:

Answer:

the answer is equal to non zero

Answer:

When the lines (representing peaks) pass over each other, constructive interference occurs. To put it another way, when two waves are in phase, they constructively interfere. When two waves are entirely out of phase (a peak lies in the middle of two waves), destructive interference ensues.

Explanation:

Answer:

8

Explanation:

Answer: Eight planets in our Solar System.

Explanation:

Answer:

the theorist that I chose is John Watson. He focused on the behaviors of a person on the outside. “He believed that a person’s physical responses provided the only insight into internal actions.”[ CITATION Goo15 \l 1033 ] He believed that behaviors are learned, as with the rat white and “Albert”. He taught “Albert” to fear the rat by making a sound any time the rat was shown. “Through learning, an initially neutral stimulus, the white rat, had become a stimulus for fear.”[CITATION Car17 \p 41 \l 1033

Explanation:

this is the answer

The biologist who had summarized the theory to explain the aspects of the theory is john watson.

Who was john watson?

John B. Watson was a trailblazing psychologist who made significant contributions to the growth of behaviorism. Watson thought that the main focus of psychology should be on observable behavior in science. He is famous for his studies on the process of conditioning.

Watson is particularly well-known for the Little Albert experiment, in which he showed how a young kid may be taught to fear a stimulus that was previously neutral. Additionally, his studies shown that this phobia might extend to other similar things.

Therefore, The biologist who had summarized the theory to explain the aspects of the theory is john watson.

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Answer:

the liquid state

Explanation:

because the particles can move about freely, a liquid has no definite shape and takes a shape dictated by its container.

Answer:

Explanation:

The chart shows data for four moving objects.

Object

Initial Velocity

Final Velocity

Change in

(m/s)

(m/s)

Time (s)

29

6

X>N

10

34

12

12

40

20

28

8

Which object has the greatest acceleration?

W

x

Y

Hi there!

Recall Ampere's Law:
[tex]\oint B \cdot dl = \mu_0 i_{encl}[/tex]

B = Magnetic Field Strength (T)
μ₀ = Permeability of Free Space (Tm/A)

i =  Enclosed Current (A)

dL = differential path length

To begin, we must derive an expression for the magnetic field strength inside a wire that contains a uniformly-distributed current.

Using the expression:

[tex]i = \int J \cdot dA[/tex]

Where 'J' is the density of current, and A is the cross-sectional area:
[tex]A = \pi r^2\\\\dA = 2\pi r dr[/tex]

We know that:
[tex]J = \frac{i_0 }{A}\\\\J = \frac{i_0}{\pi a^2}[/tex]

This is the current density. We can now integrate:

[tex]i = \int\limits^r_0 {\frac{i_0}{\pi a^2} \cdot 2\pi r} \, dr\\ \\i =\frac{i_0}{a^2}\int\limits^r_0 {2r } \, dr\\\\i = \frac{i_0}{a^2} \cdot r^2 = \frac{i_0 r^2}{a^2}[/tex]

Now, substitute this expression back into the above equation for the magnetic field:
[tex]\oint B \cdot dl = \mu _0 \frac{i_0r^2}{a^2}[/tex]

The path of integration is a closed loop of length 2πr, so:
[tex]B \cdot 2\pi r = \mu_0 \frac{i_0r^2}{a^2}\\\\B = \frac{\mu_0 i_0r}{2\pi a^2}[/tex]

We can now use this equation for the first 2 parts.

a)
If 'r' equals 0:
[tex]B = \frac{\mu _0 i_0 (0)}{2\pi a^2} = \boxed{0 T}[/tex]

b)

If 'r' equals a/2:
[tex]B = \frac{\mu _0 i_0 (\frac{a}{2})}{2\pi a^2} =B =\boxed{ \frac{\mu _0 i_0 }{4\pi a} T}[/tex]

c)
At the wire's surface, 'r' = a:
[tex]B = \frac{\mu _0 i_0 (a)}{2\pi a^2} =B =\boxed{ \frac{\mu _0 i_0 }{2\pi a} T}[/tex]

d)

At 'r' = 2a, since this is outside of the wire, the relationship between magnetic field and distance from the wire becomes a 1/r (inverse) relationship. This is found using Ampere's Law:
[tex]B = \frac{\mu_0 i_0}{2\pi r}\\[/tex]

[tex]B = \frac{\mu_0 i_0}{2\pi (2a)} \\\\\boxed{B = \frac{\mu_0 i_0}{4\pi a}\\}[/tex]

the answer is option C, because there were no horses in Ghana

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

Normal force = m g cos 53 = 8 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 * cos 53 = 47.1823 N

  no work is done by this force

Force friction = coeff friction * force normal = .4 * 47.1823 = 7.55 N

   work of friction = 7.55 * 2 m = 15.1 j

Force Downplane = mg sin 53 = 62.61  N

    work = 62.61 * 2 = 125.22 j

Net Force downplane =   force downplane - force friction = 55.06 N

net Work = force * distance = 55.06 N * 2 M = 110.12 j

Hi there!

We can use Newton's Second Law:
[tex]\Sigma F = ma[/tex]

ΣF = Net force (N)
m = mass (kg)
a = acceleration (m/s²)

We can rearrange the equation to solve for the acceleration.

[tex]a = \frac{\Sigma F}{m}\\\\a = \frac{24}{4} = \boxed{6 \frac{m}{s^2}}[/tex]

Answer:

a

Explanation:

hI I

Answer:

The water will get more warm fresh water

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

First, prime factorize the two pure tone values.

It is clear that the Highest Common Factor (HCF) is 5

The two tones can only be pure if they resonate from the same beat frequency.

As 5 is a common factor, it is the beat frequency.

Answer:

Let x be the overhang of the plank

(4 - x) = Y      portion of plank less the overhang

Y / 2 M g = clockwise torque due to weight of plank

40 x = counterclockwise torque due to weight of woman

(4 - x) M g / 2 = 40 x

(4 - x) M g = 80 x        (I)

4 M g = (80 + M g) x   (II)

x = 4 M g / (80 + M g) = 4 / (80 / M g + 1)

x would be shorter with an increase in M

if x were 1 then

4 M g = 80 + M g      using (II)

M = 80 / (3 g) = 2.72 kg

Check: use x = 1 in equaton (I)

3 M g = 80

M = 80 / (3 * 9.8) = 2.72 kg

The Force "F" applied on the unit electric charge "q" at a point describes the electric field.

The Magnetic field strength as a function of time will be 2.4 ×10⁻¹¹ T.it is denoted by B.

The number of magnetic flux lines on a unit area passing perpendicular to the given line direction is known as induced magnetic field strength

Given

The radius of cylinder is,R=2.8 mm = 0.028 m

[tex]\rm \oint B.ds = \frac{\mu_0 \epsilon_0 d\phi}{dt} \\\\ B \times 2\pi r = \frac{\mu_0 \EPSILON_0 d (EA)i}{dt} \\\\\ b = \frac{\mu_0 \epsilon_0 \times \PI r^ 2 d(E)}{dt} \times \frac{1}{2\pir} \\\\ B= \frac{\mu_0 \epsilon_0 \times rd (E)}{2dt} \\\\ B= \frac{1.26 \times 10^{-5}\times 8.85 \times 10^{-12}\times (3.2 \times 10^{-3})\times 1.4 \times 10^8}{2} \\\\ B =2.4 \times 10^{-11} \ T[/tex]

Hence, magnetic field strength as a function of time will be 2.4 ×10⁻¹¹ T.

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Answer:

Explanation:

The interfering waves have form y

1

​

=Asin(kx−ωt) and y

2

​

=Asin(kx+ωt)

Thus the resultant wave has displacement y=y

1

​

+y

2

​

=2Asin(kx)cos(ωt)

Maximum displacement is obtained when cos(ωt)=1

Thus y

max

​

=2×3×sin(π×0.25)=4.24cm

The maximum transverse position of an element of the medium is 3.00 cm at x=0.250 cm, 0 cm at x=0.500 cm, and -3.00 cm at x=1.50 cm, and the three smallest values of x corresponding to antinodes are 0.150 cm, 0.450 cm, and 0.750 cm.

A transverse wave is a type of wave where the disturbance, or displacement, of the medium, is perpendicular to the direction in which the wave travels.

Here in the Question,

There appears to be a typo in the given wave functions, as they are both the same. I will assume that the second wave function is actually y2 = 3.00 sin(2πx - 0.600t).

The resulting wave function for the two waves is y = y1 + y2 = 3.00 sin π(x - 0.600t) + 3.00 sin(2πx - 0.600t).

(a) At x = 0.250 cm, the maximum transverse position occurs when sin π(x - 0.600t) = 1 and sin(2πx - 0.600t) = 0. Therefore, y = 3.00 cm.

(b) At x = 0.500 cm, the maximum transverse position occurs when sin π(x - 0.600t) = 0 and sin(2πx - 0.600t) = -1. Therefore, y = -3.00 cm.

(c) At x = 1.50 cm, the maximum transverse position occurs when sin π(x - 0.600t) = -1 and sin(2πx - 0.600t) = 0. Therefore, y = -3.00 cm.

(d) The antinodes occur at the maximum values of y, which correspond to when sin π(x - 0.600t) = 1 or -1 and sin(2πx - 0.600t) = 0. The three smallest values of x that satisfy these conditions are:

x = 0.25 cm, as found in part (a)

x = 0.75 cm, where sin π(x - 0.600t) = -1 and sin(2πx - 0.600t) = 0

x = 1.25 cm, where sin π(x - 0.600t) = 1 and sin(2πx - 0.600t) = 0

Therefore, The maximum transverse position of an element of the medium is 3.00 cm at x=0.250 cm, 0 cm at x=0.500 cm, and -3.00 cm at x=1.50 cm, and the three smallest values of x corresponding to antinodes are 0.150 cm, 0.450 cm, and 0.750 cm.

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Answer:

the answer is equal to 2.00v

The voltage drops across 10 Ω resistance with voltage 120V is 20 V. Hence, option B is correct.

The potential difference between two points is defined as the amount of work done in moving a unit of positive charge from one point to another. The potential difference or voltage is measured in volts(v).

According to Ohm's law, voltage is directly proportional to the current flow in the circuit. Voltage drop in the circuit is defined as a decrease in electric potential along the path of the current in the circuit.

The voltage drop occurs because of the current flow in the circuit. It is related to resistance and impedance to the current flow in the circuit.

From the given,

the resistors are connected in series,

R(eq) = R₁ + R₂ + R₃

         = 10 + 20 + 30

        = 60 ohm

The equivalent resistance is 60 ohms.

To find current by using Ohm's law:

V= I×R

I = V/R

 = 120/60

= 2 A

The current flow in the circuit is 2 amperes.

To find voltage drop:

V= I×R

 = 2×10

 = 20 V

The voltage drop across the resistor 10Ω is 20 V.

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