The correct answers are (a) the upper limit on C₁ is 1 F ; (b) the prototype values of R₁, R₂, and R₃ are 1 kΩ, 2 kΩ, and 4 kΩ ; (c) the value of R₁ is 1 kΩ, the value of R₂ is 2 kΩ, and the value of R₃ is 4 kΩ ; (d) if the corner frequency of the filter is 2.1 kHz and C₂ is chosen to be 10 nF, then the scaled values of R₁, R₂, and R₃ are 210 Ω, 420 Ω, and 840 Ω, respectively ; (e) the scaled values of the resistors in the first-order section of the filter are 210 Ω and 420 Ω ; (f) the scaled value of the capacitor in the first-order section of the filter is 10 nF
Part A:
If C₂ = 1 F in the prototype second-order section, then the upper limit on C₁ is 1 F as well. This is because the value of C₁ determines the resonant frequency of the second-order section, and the resonant frequency must be the same for both the prototype and scaled filter.
Part B:
The prototype values of R₁, R₂, and R₃ are 1 kΩ, 2 kΩ, and 4 kΩ, respectively. This is because the values of R₁, R₂, and R₃ are determined by the resonant frequency and the Q factor of the second-order section, and the resonant frequency and Q factor are the same for both the prototype and scaled filter.
Part C:
If the limiting value of C₁ is chosen, then the value of C₁ is 1 F. This means that the value of R₁ is 1 kΩ, the value of R₂ is 2 kΩ, and the value of R₃ is 4 kΩ.
Part D:
If the corner frequency of the filter is 2.1 kHz and C₂ is chosen to be 10 nF, then the scaled values of R₁, R₂, and R₃ are 210 Ω, 420 Ω, and 840 Ω, respectively. This is because the scaled values of R₁, R₂, and R₃ are determined by the corner frequency and the Q factor of the second-order section, and the corner frequency and Q factor are the same for both the prototype and scaled filter.
Part E:
The scaled values of the resistors in the first-order section of the filter are 210 Ω and 420 Ω. This is because the values of the resistors in the first-order section are determined by the values of the resistors in the second-order section, and the values of the resistors in the second-order section are scaled by the same factor.
Part F:
The scaled value of the capacitor in the first-order section of the filter is 10 nF. This is because the value of the capacitor in the first-order section is determined by the value of the capacitor in the second-order section, and the value of the capacitor in the second-order section is scaled by the same factor.
Thus, the correct answers are (a) the upper limit on C₁ is 1 F ; (b) the prototype values of R₁, R₂, and R₃ are 1 kΩ, 2 kΩ, and 4 kΩ ; (c) the value of R₁ is 1 kΩ, the value of R₂ is 2 kΩ, and the value of R₃ is 4 kΩ ; (d) if the corner frequency of the filter is 2.1 kHz and C₂ is chosen to be 10 nF, then the scaled values of R₁, R₂, and R₃ are 210 Ω, 420 Ω, and 840 Ω, respectively ; (e) the scaled values of the resistors in the first-order section of the filter are 210 Ω and 420 Ω ; (f) the scaled value of the capacitor in the first-order section of the filter is 10 nF.
To learn more about resonant frequency :
https://brainly.com/question/28168744
#SPJ11
1.38 Compute the energy of the following signals. (a) x₁(t) = eat u(t) for a > 0 (b) x2(t) = eat for a > 0 (c) x3(t) = (1 - [t]) rect(1/2)
The energy of signal x₃(t) is 5.
To compute the energy of the given signals, we need to evaluate the integral of the squared magnitude of each signal over its defined interval. Here's how we can calculate the energy for each signal:
(a) x₁(t) = eat u(t) for a > 0
To calculate the energy of x₁(t), we need to integrate |x₁(t)|² over its interval.
∫(|x₁(t)|²) dt = ∫((eat u(t))²) dt
= ∫(e^2at u(t)) dt
Since the signal x₁(t) is defined for t ≥ 0, we can integrate from 0 to infinity:
∫(|x₁(t)|²) dt = ∫(e^2at) dt from 0 to infinity
= [(-1/2a) * e^2at] from 0 to infinity
= (-1/2a) * (e^2a(infinity) - e^2a(0))
= (-1/2a) * (0 - 1)
= 1/(2a)
So, the energy of x₁(t) is 1/(2a).
(b) x₂(t) = eat for a > 0
To calculate the energy of x₂(t), we integrate |x₂(t)|² over its interval.
∫(|x₂(t)|²) dt = ∫((eat)²) dt
= ∫(e^2at) dt
Again, since the signal x₂(t) is defined for t ≥ 0, we integrate from 0 to infinity:
∫(|x₂(t)|²) dt = ∫(e^2at) dt from 0 to infinity
= [(-1/2a) * e^2at] from 0 to infinity
= (-1/2a) * (e^2a(infinity) - e^2a(0))
= (-1/2a) * (0 - 1)
= 1/(2a)
The energy of x₂(t) is also 1/(2a).
(c) x₃(t) = (1 - [t]) rect(1/2)
To calculate the energy of x₃(t), we integrate |x₃(t)|² over its interval.
∫(|x₃(t)|²) dt = ∫((1 - [t])² rect(1/2)²) dt
= ∫((1 - [t])² (1/4)) dt
Since the signal x₃(t) is defined for 0 ≤ t ≤ 1, we integrate from 0 to 1:
∫(|x₃(t)|²) dt = ∫((1 - [t])² (1/4)) dt from 0 to 1
= ∫((1 - t)² (1/4)) dt from 0 to 1
= (1/4) ∫((1 - 2t + t²)) dt from 0 to 1
= (1/4) [t - t²/2 + t³/3] from 0 to 1
= (1/4) [(1 - 1/2 + 1/3) - (0 - 0 + 0)]
= (1/4) [(6/6 - 3/6 + 2/6)]
= (1/4) [5/6]
= 5/24
Therefore, the energy of x₃(t) is 5
To learn more about Signal energy, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/2622778
#SPJ11
A rectangular current loop with magnetic moment m=2(x+4y) is present in a uniform Magnetic field with = 4x + 16 y. The Torque acting on the loop is O A. None of the given answers OB.T=136 2 OCT=-136 2 O D, Zero OE T= 8 + 128 y OF T -8- 128 y
The torque acting on the loop is Option (E) T = 8 + 128y is the correct answer
Given, Magnetic moment m = 2(x + 4y)
Magnetic field B = 4x + 16y
The torque acting on a current loop is given by
T = m × BB = (4x + 16y) = 4xi + 16yj
∴ T = m × B = 2(x + 4y) × (4xi + 16yj) =[tex]8xyi + 32y^2j + 8xyj + 32y(x + 4y)i= 8xyi + 8xyj + 32y^2i + 128y^2j[/tex]
Given, magnetic moment m = 2(x + 4y), so
Torque T = [tex]8xyi + 8xyj + 32y^2i + 128y^2j[/tex]
Therefore, the required torque acting on the loop is
T = [tex]8xyi + 8xyj + 32y^2i + 128y^2j[/tex], which can be written in the form
T = [tex](8x + 32y^2)i + (8x + 128y^2)j[/tex].
Thus, option (F) T = -8 - 128y is incorrect.
In conclusion, the answer is :
The torque acting on the loop is
T = [tex](8x + 32y2)i + (8x + 128y2)j.[/tex]
Hence, option (E) T = 8 + 128y is the correct answer.
learn more about torque here:
https://brainly.com/question/28220969
#SPJ11
Look at the names below.
What is the mode?
Millie
Joshua
Lena
Millie
Joshua
Holly
Millie
Oscar
Joshua
Finn
Millie
Answer:
Mode = Millie
Explanation:
In statistics, the mode is the most frequently occurring value in a set, or, in this case, the most frequent name.
We see Millie 4 times
Joshua 3 times
Lena 1 time
Holly 1 time
Oscar 1 time
And Finn 1 time
Since the name, "Millie", is the most frequent name in the set, that is the mode.
In the first (simulated) hours and days after striking Earth with Phobos near the Yucatan peninsula, roughly to what temperature does Earth's average air atmosphere rise at maximum before starting to cool back down?
An asteroid impact on Earth can lead to devastating consequences such as wildfires, tsunamis, and earthquakes. The size of the asteroid determines the extent of the impact, ranging from local destruction to worldwide devastation. The temperature of the Earth's atmosphere can rise to thousands of degrees, causing secondary impacts like firestorms and wildfires.
The initial hours and days after the asteroid impact, Earth's average air atmosphere's temperature rises to thousands of degrees, which can cause the wildfires and secondary impacts that follow.
What happens when an asteroid crashes on Earth?
In general, an asteroid impact can cause fires, a heat wave, or a strong shock wave. The size of the asteroid that crashes determines the impact's aftermath on Earth. Suppose the asteroid is relatively small, say around 40 meters in diameter. In that case, it will likely explode in the atmosphere, causing a meteor airburst that is incredibly destructive but not as catastrophic as the Tunguska airburst.
Astroids impact
When an asteroid of a significant size hits Earth, it can cause worldwide devastation. For instance, the asteroid that caused the extinction of dinosaurs 65 million years ago was about 10-15 kilometers in diameter. It led to a chain of events that wiped out three-quarters of all plant and animal species on the planet.
An asteroid impact can cause massive destruction, including wildfires, tsunamis, and earthquakes. It can also raise the Earth's average air atmosphere's temperature to thousands of degrees, causing secondary impacts like firestorms and wildfires.
Learn more about asteroid impact
https://brainly.com/question/8123911
#SPJ11
An electric iron is Marg 20 words 500 w the units consumed by it in using it for 24 hours will be
The electric iron with a power rating of 500 watts will consume 12 kilowatt-hours (kWh) of electricity when used continuously for 24 hours.
To calculate the units consumed, we need to consider the power rating and the duration of usage. The power rating of the electric iron is given as 500 watts, which is equivalent to 0.5 kilowatts (kW). By multiplying the power rating by the time used (24 hours), we obtain the total energy consumed, which is 12 kilowatt-hours (kWh). This value represents the units of electricity consumed by the electric iron during the 24-hour period.
Therefore, the electric iron will consume 12 kilowatt-hours (kWh) of electricity when used for 24 hours continuously with a power rating of 500 watts.
Know more about kilowatt here:
brainly.com/question/24057012
#SPJ11
T"he naturally occurring electrical field on the ground to an open sky point 3.00 m above is 1.13×10 2
N/C. This open point in the sky is at a greater electric potential than the ground. (a) Calculate the electric potential at this height. (b) Sketch electric field and equipotential lines for this scenario. Calculate the electric potential at this height. (c) Sketch electric field and equipotential lines for this scenario.
(a) Calculation of electric potential at the height The electric potential at a distance r from a point charge is given by the equation, V=k(q/r)Where V is the electric potential, k is Coulomb’s constant, q is the charge and r is the distance. Now, we will find the potential at a height of 3.00 m from the ground, which is at a distance r=3.00 m from the ground. Q = 0 (as no charge is given)∴ V=0.
(b) Sketch electric field and equipotential lines for this scenario. Equipotential lines and electric field lines are always perpendicular to each other. Equipotential lines represent points on a surface that have the same potential. Hence, the equipotential lines are circular concentric circles around the open point in the sky. The electric field lines start at positive charges and end at negative charges. As no charges are given here, there will be no electric field lines(c) Sketch electric field and equipotential lines for this scenario. The figure shows the electric field lines and equipotential lines. Since there is no charge, the electric field lines will be absent. Equipotential lines will be concentric circles around the open point in the sky at a distance of 3.00 m from the ground.
To know more about charge visit:
https://brainly.com/question/21684715
#SPJ11
a) A student wants to project the image of an object onto a screen using a curved mirror. The requirement is that the image is magnified. State the type of mirror that would achieve this and carefully describe where the object should be placed with respect to the mirror to achieve the desired image. Proper definitions and terms should be used in your answer. State also, the other characteristics that the image would possess. [2] b) A 1.5 cm high object is placed in front of a convex lens, producing an upright image that is located 8.0 cm from the optical centre of the lens. The focus is located 3.0 cm from the optical centre. Calculate the height of the image.
a) To achieve a magnified image, a concave mirror should be used. The object should be placed beyond the center of curvature of the mirror.
b) The height of the image formed by the convex lens is 2.5 cm.
a) To achieve a magnified image, a concave mirror should be used. The object should be placed beyond the center of curvature of the mirror. This is because in a concave mirror, the focal point is located between the center of curvature and the mirror's surface. Placing the object beyond the center of curvature ensures that the image formed is larger than the object. The image formed by a concave mirror will be virtual, upright, and magnified.
b) To calculate the height of the image formed by a convex lens, we can use the lens formula:
1/f = 1/v - 1/u
where f is the focal length of the lens, v is the distance of the image from the lens, and u is the distance of the object from the lens.
Given that the focal length (f) is 3.0 cm and the distance of the image (v) is 8.0 cm, we can rearrange the lens formula to solve for u:
1/u = 1/f - 1/v
1/u = 1/3 - 1/8
1/u = (8 - 3)/24
1/u = 5/24
Simplifying, we find that u = 24/5 cm.
Now, we can use the magnification formula:
magnification (m) = height of image (h_i) / height of object (h_o)
Given that the height of the object (h_o) is 1.5 cm, and the height of the image (h_i) is unknown, we can rearrange the formula to solve for h_i:
m = h_i / h_o
m = v / u
Substituting the given values, we have:
m = 8 / (24/5)
m = 8 * (5/24)
m = 5/3
Finally, we can calculate the height of the image:
h_i = m * h_o
h_i = (5/3) * 1.5
h_i = 2.5 cm
Therefore, the height of the image formed by the convex lens is 2.5 cm.
Learn more about magnified image here:
https://brainly.com/question/28791362
#SPJ11
An 81 kg person puts on a life jacket, jumps into the water, and floats. The jacket has a volume of 3.1 x 10⁻²m³ and is completely submerged under the water. The volume of the person's body that is under the water is 6.2 x 10⁻² m³. a) What is the buoyant force on the combined man and the life jacket? b) Draw a free body diagram of the forces acting on the person / life jacket. c) What is the density of the life jacket?
An 81 kg person puts on a life jacket, jumps into the water, and floats. The jacket has a volume of 3.1 x 10⁻²m³ and is completely submerged under the water. The volume of the person's body that is under the water is 6.2 x 10⁻² m³. (a) The buoyant force on the combined person and life jacket is approximately 914.4 N.(c)The density of the life jacket is approximately 2.58 x 10^4 kg/m³.
a) The buoyant force on an object submerged in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. In this case, the buoyant force on the combined person and life jacket is equal to the weight of the water displaced by them.
The volume of the life jacket is 3.1 x 10^(-2) m³, and the volume of the person's body submerged under water is 6.2 x 10^(-2) m³. The total volume of water displaced is the sum of these volumes:
Total volume of water displaced = Volume of life jacket + Volume of submerged body
= 3.1 x 10^(-2) m³ + 6.2 x 10^(-2) m³
= 9.3 x 10^(-2) m³
The density of water is approximately 1000 kg/m³. The weight of the water displaced is equal to the buoyant force:
Buoyant force = Weight of water displaced
= density of water ×volume of water displaced ×acceleration due to gravity
= 1000 kg/m³ × 9.3 x 10^(-2) m³ × 9.8 m/s²
Calculating this, we find:
Buoyant force ≈ 914.4 N
Therefore, the buoyant force on the combined person and life jacket is approximately 914.4 N.
b) The free body diagram of the forces acting on the person and life jacket would include:
The weight of the person acting downwards (mg).
The buoyant force acting upwards.
The normal force exerted by the water surface acting upwards.
The person's weight acting downwards.
c) To find the density of the life jacket, we can use the formula:
Density = Mass / Volume
The mass of the life jacket is not given directly, but we can calculate it using the weight of the person. The weight of the person is equal to the gravitational force acting on them:
Weight = mass × acceleration due to gravity
Rearranging the formula, we have:
Mass = Weight / acceleration due to gravity
= 81 kg ×9.8 m/s²
Substituting this mass and the given volume of the life jacket into the density formula:
Density = Mass / Volume
= (81 kg × 9.8 m/s²) / (3.1 x 10^(-2) m³)
Calculating this, we find:
Density ≈ 2.58 x 10^4 kg/m³
Therefore, the density of the life jacket is approximately 2.58 x 10^4 kg/m³.
To learn more about buoyant force visit: https://brainly.com/question/11884584
#SPJ11
Lateral magnification by the objective of a simple compound microscope is. m 1
=−10×. Which pair of angular magnification by its eyepiece, M 2
, and total magnification, M, is/are possible for the microscope? 14. A simple telescope consists of an objective and eyepiece of focal lengths +100 cm and +20 cm. Which of the following is/are TRUE about the telescope? A. The telescope length is 1.2 m. B. The power of the objective is +1.0D C. The final image formed by the telescope is virtual. 15. You are asked by the school head to build a simple telescope of magnification −15×. Which pair of lens combinations is/are suitable for the telescope? 16. The distance between point N from coherent sources M and O are λ and 3 2
1
λ, respectively. Points M,N and O lie in a straight line. Point N is located between M and O. Which is/are true statement(s) about the situation. A. Point N is an antinode point. B. The path length between source M and O is 4 2
1
λ. C. The path difference between sources M and O at point N is 2 2
1
λ 17. A bubble seems to be colourful when shone with white light. What happens to the light in the bubble thin film compared to the incident light from the air? A. The light is slower in the thin film. B. The wavelength of the light is shorter in the film. C. The frequency of the light does not change in the film. 18. FIGURE 5 shows a diagram of two coherent sources emitting waves in 2-dimensional space. Solid lines represent the wavefronts of wave peaks, and dotted lines represent the wavefronts wave through. Select the thick line(s) representing the nodal line(s). 19. FIGURE 6 shows a diagram of two coherent sources emitting waves in 2-dimensional space. Solid lines represent the wavefronts of wave peaks, and dotted lines represent the wavefronts wave through. 20. A part of a static bubble in the air momentarily looks reddish under the white light illumination. Given that the refractive index of the bubble is 1.34 and the red light wavelength is 680 nm, what is/are the possible bubble thickness? A. 130 nm B. 180 nm C. 630 nm 21. A thin layer of kerosene (n=1.39) is formed on a wet road (n=1.33). If the film thickness is 180 nm, what is/are the possible visible light seen on the layer? A. 460 nm B. 700 nm C. 1400 nm 22. 400 nm blue light passes through a diffraction grating. The first order bright fringe is located at 10 mm from the central bright. Which of the following is/are true about the situation? A. The width of the bright fringe is 10 cm. B. The distance between consecutive bright fringe is 10 cm. C. The distance between the light source and the screen is 10 cm. 23. In Young's double slits experiment, A. the slits refract light. B. the wavelength of the light source increases and decreases alternatively. C. the width of the central bright is inversely proportional to the distance between slits. 24. A beam of monochromatic light is diffracted by a slit of width 0.45 mm. The diffraction pattern forms on a wall 1.5 m beyond the slit. The width of the central maximum is 2.0 mm. Which of the following is/are TRUE about the experiment? A. The wavelength of the light is 600 nm. B. The width of each bright fringe is 2.0 mm C. The distance between dark fringes is 1.0 mm Devi conducted a light diffraction experiment using a red light. She got the diffraction pattern as shown in FIGURE 7. The distance between indicated dark fringes was measured as 2.5 mm. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE about the experiment? A. She used diffraction grating to get the pattern. B. The width of the central maximum was 2.5 mm. C. The distance between consecutive bright fringes was 2.5 mm.
The options that are TRUE about the telescope include:
(A) The telescope length is 1.2 m.
(C) The final image formed by the telescope is virtual.
How to explain the informationThe telescope length is the sum of the focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece, so it is 1.2 m. The power of the objective is the reciprocal of its focal length, so it is +1.0D. The final image formed by a telescope is always virtual.
The pair of lens combinations that is/are suitable for the telescope os Objective: +20 cm, Eyepiece: -100 cm
The thing that happens to the light in the bubble thin film compared to the incident light from the air is that the wavelength of the light is shorter in the film.
There are no nodal lines in FIGURE 5 and there is one nodal line in FIGURE 6. The nodal line is the thick line that passes through the center of the diagram. At this point, the waves from the two sources are exactly out of phase. So, there is no light at this point.
Learn more about telescope on
https://brainly.com/question/18300677
#SPJ4
When the frequency of the AC voltage is doubled, the capacitive reactance whille the inductive reactance halves; doubles doubles; halves halves; halves doubles; doubles
When the frequency of the AC voltage is doubled, the capacitive reactance halves while the inductive reactance doubles.
When the frequency of the AC voltage is doubled, the capacitive reactance halves while the inductive reactance doubles. This is because the reactance of a capacitor is inversely proportional to the frequency of the AC voltage, while the reactance of an inductor is directly proportional to the frequency of the AC voltage.Capacitive reactance, denoted by XC, is given by the formula:XC = 1 / (2πfC)Where f is the frequency of the AC voltage, and C is the capacitance of the capacitor.
Since the reactance of the capacitor is inversely proportional to the frequency of the AC voltage, when the frequency of the AC voltage is doubled, the capacitive reactance will be halved.On the other hand, inductive reactance, denoted by XL, is given by the formula:XL = 2πfLWhere f is the frequency of the AC voltage, and L is the inductance of the inductor. Since the reactance of the inductor is directly proportional to the frequency of the AC voltage, when the frequency of the AC voltage is doubled, the inductive reactance will be doubled.
In conclusion, when the frequency of the AC voltage is doubled, the capacitive reactance halves while the inductive reactance doubles.
Learn more about frequency here,
https://brainly.com/question/254161
#SPJ11
show the positioning of an objective lens and eye piece of the following devices with respect to their focal length . example d=fo-fe and number of lens in the device
1. simple microscopic (magnifying glass)
2. compound microscope
3. astronomical telescope
4. galilean telescope
5. prismatic binoculars
1. Simple Microscope (Magnifying Glass): Objective lens = N/A, Eyepiece = N/A (Single Lens)
2. Compound Microscope: Objective lens = Closer, Eyepiece = Farther
3. Astronomical Telescope: Objective lens = Closer, Eyepiece = Farther
4. Galilean Telescope: Objective lens = Closer, Eyepiece = Farther
5. Prismatic Binoculars: Objective lens = Closer, Eyepiece = Farther
Simple Microscope (Magnifying Glass):
In a simple microscope or magnifying glass, there is only one lens, which serves as both the objective lens and the eyepiece. The lens is convex and typically has a short focal length. The object being observed is placed closer to the lens than its focal length (d < fo). So, in this case, the distance between the lens and the object is smaller than the focal length.
Compound Microscope:
A compound microscope consists of two lenses: the objective lens and the eyepiece. The objective lens, with a shorter focal length, is positioned closer to the object being observed. The eyepiece lens, with a longer focal length, is located closer to the observer's eye. The object being observed is placed closer to the objective lens than its focal length (d < fo). The distance between the objective and eyepiece lenses is typically greater than the sum of their focal lengths (d > fo + fe).
Astronomical Telescope:
In an astronomical telescope, the objective lens is positioned closer to the object being observed, such as celestial bodies. The objective lens has a longer focal length compared to the eyepiece lens. The eyepiece lens, with a shorter focal length, is located closer to the observer's eye. The object being observed is placed farther away from the objective lens than its focal length (d > fo). The distance between the objective and eyepiece lenses is typically greater than the sum of their focal lengths (d > fo + fe).
Galilean Telescope:
A Galilean telescope has a convex objective lens and a concave eyepiece lens. The objective lens, with a longer focal length, is positioned closer to the object being observed. The eyepiece lens, with a shorter focal length, is located closer to the observer's eye. The object being observed is placed farther away from the objective lens than its focal length (d > fo). The distance between the objective and eyepiece lenses is typically shorter than the sum of their focal lengths (d < fo + fe).
Prismatic Binoculars:
Prismatic binoculars use multiple lenses and prisms to provide a magnified view. The objective lenses are positioned closer to the observed objects and form real images. These images are then directed through prisms to the eyepiece lenses, which magnify the virtual images seen by the observer's eyes. The distance between the objective and eyepiece lenses is greater than the sum of their focal lengths (d > fo + fe). Prismatic binoculars consist of multiple lenses and prisms for a more complex optical system.
Know more about magnifying glass here:
https://brainly.com/question/20876425
#SPJ8
The light beam shown in the figure below makes an angle of a =20.2 ∘
with the normal line NN in the linseed oll. Determine the anale θ. (The refractive index for linseed oll is 1.48.)
The angle of refraction of the light beam in the linseed oil is approximately 12.5°.
The light beam shown in the figure below makes an angle of a = 20.2° with the normal line NN in the linseed oil. Determine the angle θ. (The refractive index for linseed oil is 1.48).
The angle of refraction (θ) of the given light beam can be calculated using Snell's law. According to Snell's law of refraction,n₁sinθ₁ = n₂sinθ₂Where, n₁ = refractive index of the first medium, i.e., air (or vacuum), θ₁ = angle of incidence of the light ray, n₂ = refractive index of the second medium, i.e., linseed oil, θ₂ = angle of refraction of the light ray.
In this case, the angle of incidence (θ₁) is 90° since it is perpendicular to the normal line NN. Therefore, sin θ₁ = 1. The refractive index (n₂) for linseed oil is 1.48. The angle of incidence (a) of the light ray with respect to the normal is 20.2°.
Thus, applying Snell's law of refraction,n₁sinθ₁ = n₂sinθ₂⇒ sin θ₂ = (n₁ / n₂) × sin θ₁⇒ sin θ = (1 / 1.48) × sin 20.2°≈ 0.2154⇒ θ ≈ sin⁻¹ 0.2154≈ 12.5°
Therefore, the angle of refraction of the light beam in the linseed oil is approximately 12.5°.
The angle of refraction (θ) is approximately 12.5°. The light beam shown in the figure below makes an angle of a = 20.2° with the normal line NN in the linseed oil. The refractive index for linseed oil is 1.48.
To learn about the refractive index here:
https://brainly.com/question/83184
#SPJ11
Ignore atmospheric friction, the effects of other planets, and the rutation of the Farth. (Consider the mass of the sun in your ralaulations.) same radial line from the Sunn) X m/s
Ignoring atmospheric friction, planetary effects, and Earth's rotation, an object moving along the same radial line from the Sun will maintain a constant velocity of X m/s.
When an object moves along the same radial line from the Sun, it experiences a gravitational force directed towards the Sun. According to Newton's second law of motion, this force causes the object to accelerate.
However, in this scenario, we are disregarding atmospheric friction and the effects of other planets, which means there are no external forces acting on the object apart from the gravitational force from the Sun.
Considering the mass of the Sun, the gravitational force experienced by the object can be calculated using Newton's law of universal gravitation. The force of gravity is given by F = (G * M * m) / [tex]r^2[/tex], where G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Sun, m is the mass of the object, and r is the distance between the object and the Sun.
Since there are no other forces involved, the object will continue to accelerate towards the Sun. However, since we are ignoring atmospheric friction and the effects of other planets, the acceleration will not change over time.
Therefore, the object will maintain a constant velocity, determined by its initial conditions, along the radial line from the Sun. The magnitude of this velocity will be X m/s, as specified in the question.
Learn more about velocity here ;
https://brainly.com/question/28738284
#SPJ11
Bear takes his skateboard on a track. He begins from rest at point A. The track he travels on is frictionless, except for a rough patch between points B and C, where the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.3. If he runs into a spring (Spring constant 300 N/m) at the end of the track, how fare does the string compress? Bear and his skateboard have a combined mass of 2 kg. When bear is on the horizontal part of the track, the normal force from the track on him in 20N.
Bear and skateboard (2 kg) travel on a frictionless track except for a rough patch. Given normal force (20 N) and spring constant (300 N/m), spring compression distance is not determinable without more information.
To determine how far the spring compresses, we need to consider the conservation of mechanical energy.
First, let's calculate the initial kinetic energy (KE) of Bear and his skateboard. Since he starts from rest, the initial velocity (v) is 0. The initial KE is therefore 0.
Next, let's calculate the final potential energy (PE) stored in the compressed spring. Since the track is frictionless, there is no work done by friction. Thus, all the initial kinetic energy is converted into potential energy in the spring. We can use the equation PE = (1/2)kx^2, where k is the spring constant and x is the compression distance.
Equating the initial kinetic energy to the final potential energy, we have:
0 = (1/2)kx^2
Solving for x, we get:
x = √(0 / (1/2)k)
x = 0
Therefore, the spring does not compress since the initial kinetic energy is completely dissipated due to the friction on the rough patch.
It's important to note that the normal force of 20N on the horizontal part of the track is not directly relevant to the calculation of the spring compression in this scenario.
know more about kinetic energy here: brainly.com/question/999862
#SPJ11
The resistivity of a silver wire with a radius of 2.6 mm is 1.59 × 10⁻⁸ m. If the length of the wire is 7 m, what is the resistance of the wire? Give your answer to 4 decimal places in scientific notation.
The resistance of the silver wire with a radius of 2.6 mm is 5.2395 x 10^-3 Ω.
The radius of the wire (r) = 2.6 mm = 2.6 x 10^-3m
Resistivity of silver wire (ρ) = 1.59 x 10^-8 m
Length of the wire (l) = 7 m
Resistance of a wire (R) = ρ l / A, Where
ρ = Resistivity of the wire
l = Length of the wire
A = Area of cross-section of the wire
A = π r^2 = π (2.6 x 10^-3 m)^2= π (6.76 x 10^-6 m^2) = 2.1257 x 10^-5 m^2
Let's substitute the given values in the above formula and calculate the resistance of the wire.
Resistance of the wire (R) = (1.59 x 10^-8 m x 7 m) / (2.1257 x 10^-5 m^2) = 5.2395 x 10^-3 Ω
Hence, the resistance of the silver wire with a radius of 2.6 mm is 5.2395 x 10^-3 Ω.
Learn more about Resistance https://brainly.com/question/17563681
#SPJ11
The field-weakening with permanent magnet DC machines would: (a) Increase the speed beyond rated at full armature voltage (b) Decrease the speed (c) Increase mechanical power developed (d) Decrease the torque (e) Neither of the above C24. The rotor of a conventional 3-phase induction motor rotates: (a) Faster than the stator magnetic field (b) Slower than the stator magnetic field (c) At the same speed as the stator magnetic field. (d) At about 80% speed of the stator magnetic field (e) Both (b) and (d) are true C25. Capacitors are often connected in parallel with a 3-phase cage induction generator for fixed-speed wind turbines in order to: (a) Consume reactive power (b) Improve power factor (c) Increase transmission efficiency (d) Improve power quality (e) Both (b) and (c) are correct answers C26. A cage induction machine itself: (a) Always absorbs reactive power (b) Supplies reactive power if over-excited (c) Neither consumes nor supplies reactive power (d) May provide reactive power under certain conditions le) Neither of the above
C23. In permanent magnet DC machines, the field-weakening operation would increase the speed beyond rated at full armature voltage, and increase the mechanical power developed. Therefore, the correct option is (a) and (c).
C24. In a conventional 3-phase induction motor, the rotor rotates at a slower speed than the stator magnetic field. Therefore, the correct option is (b).
C25. Capacitors are often connected in parallel with a 3-phase cage induction generator for fixed-speed wind turbines to improve power factor and increase transmission efficiency. Therefore, the correct option is (b).
C26. A cage induction machine consumes reactive power when operating under the rated load. Therefore, the correct option is (a).
C23. In permanent magnet DC machines, the field-weakening operation would increase the speed beyond rated at full armature voltage, and increase the mechanical power developed. Therefore, the correct option is (a) and (c).
The field-weakening operation reduces the magnetic field generated by the permanent magnet in DC machines. It is usually applied in electric vehicle applications to reduce the torque and current drawn from the battery, which would extend the operating range of the electric vehicle.
C24. In a conventional 3-phase induction motor, the rotor rotates at a slower speed than the stator magnetic field. Therefore, the correct option is (b).
The relative speed between the rotating magnetic field in the stator and the rotor conductors would generate a rotating torque, which would rotate the rotor.
C25. Capacitors are often connected in parallel with a 3-phase cage induction generator for fixed-speed wind turbines to improve power factor and increase transmission efficiency. Therefore, the correct option is (b).
The capacitor provides a reactive power compensation to balance the reactive power generated by the induction generator. The improved power factor would reduce the power losses and increase the transmission efficiency.
C26. A cage induction machine consumes reactive power when operating under the rated load. Therefore, the correct option is (a).
The reactive power consumption would increase with the increase of the load and reduce with the reduction of the load. The reactive power absorbed by the induction machine would reduce the power factor and reduce the efficiency.
learn more about permanent magnet here:
https://brainly.com/question/14139838
#SPJ11
You have a circular loop of wire in the plane of the page with initial radius 1.0 m which shrinks to a radius of 1 m. It sits in a constant magnetic field B = 10T pointing into the page. Assume the transformation occurs over 10 seconds and no part of the wire exits the field. Also assume an internal resistance of 30 Ω. What average current is produced within the loop and in which direction?
a. 79 mA, CW
b. 79 mA, CCW
c. 701 mA, CCW
d. Zero
The average current that is produced within the loop is zero.
option D.
What is the emf induced?The emf induced in the circuit is calculated by applying the following formula for electromagnetic induction as follows;
emf = NBA/t
where;
N is the number of turnsB is the constant magnetic fieldA is the area of the loopt is the timeThe area of the circular loop is calculated as;
A = π(r₁ - r₂)²
where;
r₁ is the initial radius
r₂ is the final radius
A = π (1² - 1²)
A = 0 m²
The induced emf is calculated as;
emf = (1 x 10T x 0 m² ) / ( 10 s )
emf = 0 V
The current produced is calculated as follows;
I = emf / R
I = 0 V / 30 Ω.
I = 0 A
Learn more about induced emf here: https://brainly.com/question/13744192
#SPJ4
Which of the following could be used to create an electric field inside a solenoid? Attach the solenoid to an AC power supply. Isolate the solenoid. Attach the solenoid to a DC power supply. Attach the solenoid to an ACDC album.
To create an electric field inside a solenoid, you would need to attach the solenoid to a power supply. However, the type of power supply required depends on the desired type of electric field.
A solenoid is typically used to generate a magnetic field when a current flows through it. If you want to create an electric field inside the solenoid, you would need to change the configuration or introduce additional elements to the solenoid.
The options provided are as follows:
Attach the solenoid to an AC power supply: This option would create an alternating current (AC) flowing through the solenoid, which generates a magnetic field. However, it would not directly create an electric field inside the solenoid.
Isolate the solenoid: Isolating the solenoid, meaning disconnecting it from any power supply, would not generate any electric or magnetic fields.
Attach the solenoid to a DC power supply: This option would create a direct current (DC) flowing through the solenoid, which generates a steady magnetic field. It would not directly create an electric field inside the solenoid.
Attach the solenoid to an ACDC album: This option is not relevant to creating an electric field inside a solenoid. An ACDC album is a music album by a rock band and has no connection to the generation of electric or magnetic fields.
In summary, attaching the solenoid to either an AC or DC power supply can create a magnetic field, but to create an electric field inside the solenoid, you would need to modify the configuration or introduce additional elements to the solenoid setup. The options provided do not directly enable the creation of an electric field inside the solenoid.
Learn more about solenoid here:
https://brainly.com/question/15504705
#SPJ11
A physics student notices that the current in a coil of conducting wire goes from 11 = 0.200 A to iz = 1.50 A in a time interval of At = 0.350 s. Assuming the coil's inductance is L = 2.00 ml, what is the magnitude of the average induced emf (in mV) in the coil for this time interval? mV
The magnitude of the average induced emf in the coil for this time interval is 7.14 mV. The negative sign indicates that the direction of the induced emf opposes the change in current.
The average induced emf (electromotive force) in the coil can be determined using Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, which states that the induced emf in a coil is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux through the coil.
The equation for the average induced emf is given by:
ε_avg = -L * (ΔI / Δt)
where ε_avg is the average induced emf, L is the inductance of the coil, ΔI is the change in current, and Δt is the time interval.
Given:
ΔI = 1.50 A - 0.200 A = 1.30 A (change in current)
Δt = 0.350 s (time interval)
L = 2.00 mH = 2.00 × 10^(-3) H (inductance)
Plugging in the values into the formula:
ε_avg = -2.00 × 10^(-3) H * (1.30 A / 0.350 s)
ε_avg = -0.00714 V
To convert the average induced emf to millivolts (mV), we multiply by 1000:
ε_avg = -7.14 mV
Learn more about electromotive force here:
https://brainly.com/question/24182555
#SPJ11
The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 How much heat energy is required to change the temperature of 2.0 Kg of water from 25 degrees * C to 85
To calculate the amount of heat energy required to change the temperature of 2.0 kg of water from 25°C to 85°C, we can use the equation Q = mcΔT, where Q is the heat energy, m is the mass of the water, c is the specific heat capacity of water, and ΔT is the change in temperature.
To determine the amount of heat energy required, we need to substitute the given values into the equation Q = mcΔT. The mass of the water is given as 2.0 kg, and the specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J/kg°C. The change in temperature, ΔT, can be calculated as the final temperature (85°C) minus the initial temperature (25°C).
Using the equation, we can calculate the heat energy Q by multiplying the mass, specific heat capacity, and change in temperature. The resulting value will be in joules (J) and represents the amount of heat energy required to change the temperature of the water.
Learn more about heat capacity here:
https://brainly.com/question/28302909
#SPJ11
An electrical conductor wire designed to carry large currents has a circular cross section with 3.8 mm in diameter and is 28 m long. The resistivity of the material is given to be 1.07×10 −7
Ωm. (a) What is the resistance (in Ω ) of the wire? (b) If the electric field magnitude E in the conductor is 0.26 V/m, what is the total current (in Amps)? (c) If the material has 8.5×10 28
free electrons per cubic meter, find the average drift speed (in m/s ) under the conditions that the electric field magnitude E in the conductor is 2.4 V/m
(a) The resistance of the wire is approximately 0.200 Ω.
(b) The total current flowing through the wire is approximately 1.300 A.
(c) The average drift speed of the free electrons in the wire, under the given conditions, is approximately 5.647 × 10^(-5) m/s.
(a) To calculate the resistance (R) of the wire, we can use the formula:
R = (ρ * L) / A
where ρ is the resistivity, L is the length of the wire, and A is the cross-sectional area of the wire.
Given that the diameter of the wire is 3.8 mm, we can calculate the radius (r) and the cross-sectional area (A):
r = (3.8 mm) / 2 = 1.9 mm = 1.9 × 10^(-3) m
A = π *[tex]r^2[/tex] = π * (1.9 × [tex]10^{(-3)} m)^2[/tex]
Using the resistivity value (1.07 × 10^(-7) Ωm) and the length of the wire (28 m), we can calculate the resistance:
R = (1.07 ×[tex]10^{(-7)[/tex]Ωm * 28 m) / (π * (1.9 × [tex]10^{(-3)[/tex] [tex]m)^2)[/tex]
R ≈ 0.200 Ω
Therefore, the resistance of the wire is approximately 0.200 Ω.
(b) The total current (I) can be determined using Ohm's law:
I = E / R
where E is the electric field magnitude and R is the resistance.
Given that the electric field magnitude (E) is 0.26 V/m, and the resistance (R) is 0.200 Ω, we can calculate the total current:
I = 0.26 V/m / 0.200 Ω
I ≈ 1.300 A
Hence, the total current flowing through the wire is approximately 1.300 A.
(c) The average drift speed (v) of the free electrons in the wire can be calculated using the formula:
v = (I / (n * A * e))
where I is the current, n is the number density of free electrons, A is the cross-sectional area of the wire, and e is the elementary charge.
Given that the electric field magnitude (E) is 2.4 V/m, and the number density of free electrons (n) is 8.5 × 10^28 electrons/m^3, we can calculate the average drift speed:
v = (2.4 V/m) / (8.5 ×[tex]10^{28} m^{(-3)[/tex] * A * e)
Substituting the known values for the cross-sectional area (A) and the elementary charge (e), we can calculate the average drift speed:
v ≈ 5.647 × [tex]10^{(-5)[/tex] m/s
Therefore, the average drift speed of the free electrons in the wire, under the given conditions, is approximately 5.647 × [tex]10^{(-5)[/tex] m/s.
Learn about resistance here:
https://brainly.com/question/14547003
#SPJ11
Find the current density of a copper wire with a diameter of 6.4 m and carries a constant current of 9.6 A to a 150-W lamp.
Therefore, the current density of the copper wire is 3.23 × 104 A/m2.How did you find this solution helpful? Let us know by leaving a comment below!
Current density of a copper wire with a diameter of 6.4 mm and carries a constant current of 9.6 A to a 150-W lamp:Current density is a measure of the quantity of electric charge passing through an area unit per unit time. When a wire of cross-sectional area A carries an electric current I,
the current density J is given by J = I/A. Here, the current density J = ?I/A, where I = 9.6 A is the current flowing in the copper wire and A = 3.22 × 10-8 m2 is the cross-sectional area of the wire. Since the wire is made of copper, which has a density of 8.96 g/cm3, the mass of 1 m of wire can be calculated from the density and cross-sectional area.Mass per metre of wire = Density x Cross-sectional area = 8.96 g/cm3 x 3.22 × 10-8 m2 = 2.89 × 10-6 g/m
The number of moles of copper in 1 m of wire is calculated as follows:Amount of copper = Mass of copper/Molar mass of copper = 2.89 × 10-6 g/63.55 g/mol = 4.55 × 10-8 molThe number of free electrons in 1 mol of copper atoms is known as Avogadro's number, which is roughly 6.02 × 1023. As a result,
the total number of free electrons in 1 m of copper wire can be calculated by multiplying Avogadro's number by the number of moles of copper in 1 m of wire, which is given as:Number of free electrons per metre of wire = Avogadro's number x Amount of copper = 6.02 × 1023 × 4.55 × 10-8 = 2.74 × 1016
The amount of electric charge, q, that passes through the wire per unit time is given by q = It, where t is the time for which the current flows. The power consumed by the 150 W lamp can be calculated using the formula P = VI, where V is the potential difference across the lamp. If we assume that the potential difference across the lamp is 120 V, we haveP = VI = 120 V × 1.25 A = 150 Wwhere I is the current flowing through the wire, which is equal to the current flowing through the lamp, and the factor of 1.25 takes into account the power losses in the circuit.
If the lamp is operated for a period of 10 hours, the amount of electric charge that passes through the wire during this time is given by:q = It = 9.6 A x 10 h x 3600 s/h = 3.46 × 105 CThe current density in the wire can now be calculated using the formula J = q/A.t. Therefore,Current density of copper wire = J = q/A.t = (3.46 × 105 C)/(3.22 × 10-8 m2 x 10 x 3600 s) = 3.23 × 104 A/m2
Therefore, the current density of the copper wire is 3.23 × 104 A/m2.How did you find this solution helpful? Let us know by leaving a comment below!
to know more about density
https://brainly.com/question/1354972
#SPJ11
A tiny sphere of mass 7. 70mg and charge −2. 80nC is initially at a distance of 1. 64μm from a fixed charge of +7. 65nC. (a) If the 7. 70-mg sphere is released from rest, find its kinetic energy when it is 0. 500μm from the fixed charge. × J (b) If the 7. 70-mg sphere is released from rest, find its speed when it is 0. 500μm from the fixed charge. M/s
The kinetic energy of the sphere and its speed can be calculated using the principle of conservation of mechanical energy and the principle of conservation of energy, respectively.
The kinetic energy of the tiny sphere can be found using the principle of conservation of mechanical energy. Initially, the sphere has gravitational potential energy only, given by PE = mgh, where m is the mass (7.70mg), g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s²), and h is the initial height (1.64μm).
The final kinetic energy can be calculated by subtracting the final gravitational potential energy (mgh) from the initial potential energy.
At a distance of 0.500μm from the fixed charge, the height can be calculated as h' = (1.64μm - 0.500μm) = 1.14μm.
The final kinetic energy (KE) can be calculated using KE = PE - mgh' where h' is the final height (1.14μm).
To find the speed of the sphere when it is 0.500μm from the fixed charge, we can use the principle of conservation of energy. The initial mechanical energy is equal to the final mechanical energy.
The initial mechanical energy is given by the sum of the initial gravitational potential energy (mgh) and the initial electric potential energy (kQq/r), where k is the Coulomb constant (8.99 x 10⁹ Nm²/C²), Q is the charge of the fixed charge (+7.65nC), q is the charge of the sphere (-2.80nC), and r is the initial distance (1.64μm).
The final mechanical energy is given by the final kinetic energy (KE) and the final electric potential energy (kQq/r'), where r' is the final distance (0.500μm).
Setting the initial mechanical energy equal to the final mechanical energy, we can solve for the speed of the sphere when it is 0.500μm from the fixed charge.
To summarize:
(a) The kinetic energy of the sphere when it is 0.500μm from the fixed charge can be found by subtracting the final gravitational potential energy from the initial potential energy.
(b) The speed of the sphere when it is 0.500μm from the fixed charge can be calculated using the principle of conservation of energy, setting the initial mechanical energy equal to the final mechanical energy.
Conclusion, The kinetic energy of the sphere and its speed can be calculated using the principle of conservation of mechanical energy and the principle of conservation of energy, respectively.
To know more about mechanical energy visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29509191
#SPJ11
A 1000μF capacitor has a voltage of 5.50V across its plates. How long after it begins to discharge through a 1000k2 resistor will the voltage across the plates be 5.00V? Express your answer to 3 significant figures. 330 35D
Approximately 95.31 seconds after the capacitor begins to discharge through the 1000kΩ resistor, the voltage across its plates will be 5.00V.
To determine the time it takes for a capacitor to discharge through a resistor, we can use the formula for the discharge of a capacitor:
t = RC [tex]ln(\frac{V_{0} }{V})[/tex]
Where:
t is the time (in seconds),
R is the resistance (in ohms),
C is the capacitance (in farads),
ln is the natural logarithm,
V₀ is the initial voltage across the capacitor (in volts), and
V is the final voltage across the capacitor (in volts).
In this case, we have:
C = 1000μF = 1000 × [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] F = 0.001 F,
V₀ = 5.50 V, and
V = 5.00 V.
Substituting these values into the formula, we have:
t = (1000kΩ) × (0.001 F) × ln(5.50 V / 5.00 V)
Calculating this expression:
t ≈ 1000kΩ × 0.001 F × ln(1.10)
Using ln(1.10) ≈ 0.09531:
t ≈ 1000kΩ × 0.001 F × 0.09531
t ≈ 95.31 seconds
Therefore, approximately 95.31 seconds after the capacitor begins to discharge through the 1000kΩ resistor, the voltage across its plates will be 5.00V.
Learn more about resistor here:
https://brainly.com/question/30672175
#SPJ11
Consider an element (or bubble) of gas rising within a star. Assuming that the element behaves adiabatically as it rises (no heat in or out) and that the surrounding gas is an ideal gas, show that the condition for convection to occur, i.e. for the element to keep rising, can be expressed as:
(d ln T) / (d ln P) = (γ−1) / γ. Hint: consider the appropriate equation of state for the element and the surrounding gas, then compare the expected fractional change of density (drho/rho) of each.
For convection to occur, the fractional change in density of the rising element must be greater than the fractional change in density of the surrounding gas. This condition is determined by comparing the values of (dlnT/dlnP) for the element and the surrounding gas. If (dlnT/dlnP) is less than (γ-1)/γ, the element will continue to rise, indicating the occurrence of convection.
Consider an element of gas rising inside a star, assuming adiabatic behavior and no heat exchange. In order to demonstrate the occurrence of convection, we must show that the element will continue to rise.
As the element rises through the star, its pressure and temperature decrease. By comparing the fractional changes in density (drho/rho) of the element and the surrounding gas, we can determine the necessary condition for convection.
To begin, let's consider the equation of state for the element and the surrounding gas. The equation of state for an ideal gas is given by PV = nRT, where P represents pressure, V is volume, n is the number of moles, R is the ideal gas constant, and T is temperature. Since the volume of the rising gas bubble is changing, we need to express this equation in terms of density, ρ, where ρ = m/V and m denotes the mass of the gas. Thus, we have: P = ρkT, with k being the Boltzmann constant.
The pressure scale height, Hp, is defined as the distance over which the pressure decreases by a factor of e. This can be expressed as: Hp = P / (dP/dR), where R represents the distance from the center of the star and dP/dR denotes the pressure gradient.
To evaluate the necessary condition for convection, we need to compare the fractional change in density (drho/rho) of the element with that of the surrounding gas. We can express this as: (drho/rho) = (dP/P) / (dR/R) x (1/γ), where γ represents the specific heat ratio. If the fractional change in density is greater for the element compared to the surrounding gas, the element will continue to rise, leading to convection.
Assuming adiabatic rise, we have dP/P = -γdρ/ρ, where the negative sign signifies that pressure decreases as density increases. Combining this with the expression for (drho/rho), we obtain: (drho/rho) = γ / (γ-1) x (dlnT/dlnP).
The element will continue to rise if (drho/rho) is greater for the element compared to the surrounding gas. Therefore, we need to compare the value of (dlnT/dlnP) for the element and the surrounding gas. The element will continue to rise if: (dlnT/dlnP) < (γ-1)/γ.
Learn more about occurrence of convection
https://brainly.com/question/16635311
#SPJ11
A 9.5 m long uniform plank has a mass of 13.8 kg and is supported by the floor at one end and by a vertical rope at the other so that the plank is at an angle of 35°. A 73.0-kg mass person stands on the plank a distance three-fourths (3/4) of the length plank from the end on the floor. Include force diagram and equations.
A 9.5 m long uniform plank has a mass of 13.8 kg and is supported by the floor at one end and by a vertical rope at the other so that the plank is at an angle of 35°. Therefore, the force Fpx required to keep the uniform plank at an angle of 35° is approximately 135.6 N.
The plank is supported by the floor at one end and by a vertical rope at the other so that it is at an angle of 35°.
A person who weighs 73.0 kg stands on the plank at a distance of 3/4 of the length of the plank from the end on the floor.
A 9.5 m long uniform plank has a mass of 13.8 kg. Force diagram: FBD of the plank:
1. Fgx, weight of the plank acts downwards through the centre of gravity of the plank.
2. Fg, weight of the person acts downwards through the center of gravity of the person.
3. Fg, weight of the rope and tension acting upwards
4. Fny, the normal force acting upwards.
5. Fpx, force of plank towards the right.
6. Fpr, force of person towards the right.
7. Fpy, force of person perpendicular to the plank.
Apply the force equation along the vertical axis:
ΣF = 0 = Fny - Fg - Fgx + FgyFny = Fg + Fgx - Fgy ......(i)
Apply the force equation along the horizontal axis:
ΣF = 0 = Fpx + Fpr - FpyFpy = Fpr + Fpx .........(ii)
Finally, apply torque equation about the pivot point which is at the floor end:
Στ = 0 = Fgx×L + Fpy×L/4 - Fg×L/2 - Fpr×L/4Fgx×L + Fpy×L/4 = Fg×L/2 + Fpr×L/4
Substitute the value of Fpy from equation (ii) and simplify:
Fgx×L + (Fpr + Fpx)×L/4 = Fg×L/2 + Fpr×L/4Fgx = (Fg/2) - (Fpx/2) - (Fpr/4)
Substitute Fg = m(g) and rearrange: Fgx = (mg/2) - (Fpx/2) - (Fpr/4) = (13.8 kg × 9.8 m/s²/2) - (Fpx/2) - (73.0 kg × 9.8 m/s² × 3.6 m / 4) = 67.8 N - Fpx/2 - 639.27 N
Therefore, the force Fpx required to keep the uniform plank at an angle of 35° is approximately 135.6 N.
Learn more about gravity here:
https://brainly.com/question/31321801
#SPJ11
An old refrigerator is rated at 500 W. The refrigerator is running 12 hours per day how many kilowatt hours of electric energy would this refrigerator use in 30 days
The refrigerator would use 180 kilowatt-hours of electric energy in 30 days.
To calculate the kilowatt-hours (kWh) of electric energy used by the refrigerator in 30 days, we need to multiply the power rating of the refrigerator (500 W) by the number of hours it runs per day (12 hours), and then divide by 1000 to convert from watts to kilowatts. Finally, we multiply this value by the number of days (30 days) to get the total energy consumption.
Step 1: Convert the power rating to kilowatts:
500 W ÷ 1000 = 0.5 kW
Step 2: Calculate the daily energy consumption:
0.5 kW × 12 hours = 6 kWh/day
Step 3: Calculate the energy consumption in 30 days:
6 kWh/day × 30 days = 180 kWh
Therefore, the refrigerator would use 180 kilowatt-hours of electric energy in 30 days.
It's worth noting that this calculation assumes that the refrigerator operates at a constant power of 500 W throughout the 12-hour running period. In reality, the power consumption of the refrigerator may vary depending on its operating conditions and efficiency.
For more questions on electric energy, click on:
https://brainly.com/question/60890
#SPJ8
Vector A = 26.0 North
Vector B = 35.0 East
Vector C = 23.0 West
Find the direction of the resultant for A - B. (3 significant figures)
The direction of the resultant vector for A - B is 35.6° West of North.
Vector A = 26.0 North
Vector B = 35.0 East
Vector C = 23.0 West
The direction of the resultant for A - B will be as follows:
Vector A and Vector B are perpendicular to each other, as Vector A is in the North direction and Vector B is in the East direction.
So, we can use the Pythagorean theorem to find the magnitude of the resultant.
Thus, Resultant vector,
R² = A² + B²
R = √(A² + B²)
R = √(26² + 35²)
R = 43.55 units (approx)
As we know that Vector A and Vector B are perpendicular to each other, the angle between them will be 90°.
Now, we can use trigonometric ratios to find the direction of the resultant vector,
tan θ = opposite side/adjacent side
tan θ = A/B
tan θ = 26/35
θ = 35.61° (approx)
Hence, the direction of the resultant vector for A - B is 35.6° West of North (3 significant figures).
Learn more about the vectors:
brainly.com/question/30914052
#SPJ11
Alternating current have voltages and currents through
the circuit elements that vary as a function of time. Is it valid
to apply Kirchhoff’s rules to AC circuits when using rms values for
I and V?
Kirchhoff's rules can be applied to AC circuits using rms values for current and voltage. RMS values represent the effective values, allowing analysis of current distribution and voltage drops in AC circuits.
It is valid to apply Kirchhoff's rules to AC circuits when using rms (root mean square) values for current (I) and voltage (V). Kirchhoff's rules, which include Kirchhoff's voltage law (KVL) and Kirchhoff's current law (KCL), are fundamental principles that govern the behavior of electrical circuits.
The rms values of current and voltage represent the effective values of the alternating current or voltage. They are calculated as the square root of the average of the squares of the instantaneous values over a complete cycle. By using rms values, we can treat AC circuits in a similar manner to DC circuits.
Kirchhoff's rules state that the algebraic sum of currents at any node in a circuit is zero (KCL), and the algebraic sum of voltages in any closed loop of a circuit is zero (KVL). These rules hold true for AC circuits because they are based on the conservation of charge and energy.
By using rms values, we can effectively analyze and solve AC circuits using Kirchhoff's rules, allowing us to determine current distribution, voltage drops, and power calculations in AC circuits.
To know more about Kirchhoff's rules,
https://brainly.com/question/31824235
#SPJ11
Identifying Cassiopeia
Which constellation is Cassiopeia?
Answer:the answer is the third one
Explanation: