Can someone please help me with this problem

Answer:

about 70 cans

Step-by-step explanation:

493÷7=70.42

Answer:

y = 2/5x + 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope-Intercept Form: y = mx + b

Slope:

( y1 - y2 ) / ( x1 - x2 )

( 2 - 8 ) / ( -5 - 10 )

( -6 ) / ( -15 )

2 / 5

Y-Intercept:

8 = 2/5(10) + b

8 = 4 + b

4 = b

Hopefully this helps!

Brainliest please?

Answer:

In this case, the equation that models the value of an initial investment of P dollars in t years at an annual interest rate of r is given by A = Pert.

Step-by-step explanation:

The sample space is used to prepare a list of all possible outcomes or element in an experiment. The sample space containing all elements attainable for the number of working pumps at a particular station is listed below :

Let the number of pumps in use at each station be listed on the row and column respectively :

P1/P2_0 _ 1__ 2 __ 3 __ 4 __ 5 __ 6

0__ 0,0 _0,1 _0,2 _0,3 __0,4_ 0,5_0,6

1__ 1,0 __1,1 _1,2 __1,3 __1,4 __1,5_ 1,6

2__2,0 _2,1 _2,2 _2,3 __2,4 __2,5_2,6

3__3,0_3,1 _3,2 _ 3,3 __3,4 __3,5 _3,6

4__4,0_4,1 _4,2 _ 4,3 __4,4 __ 4,5 _4,6

5__5,0_5,1 _5,2 _ 5,3 __5,4 __ 5,5 _5,6

6__6,0_6,1 _6,2 _ 6,3 __6,4 __ 6,5 _6,6

Therefore, all possible outcomes relating to the number of working pumps are available in the sample space created.

Learn more :https://brainly.com/question/18405415

Answer:

how many boxes is the line on

Answer:

$44.40

Step-by-step explanation:

100%-70%=30%

30/100x148=44.40 (discounted price)

Appreciate to be marked brainliest. Hope this helps!

Answer:

Vendor I sells more by 0.05

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you do Vendor I, divide 38.70/5, which gives you $7.74.

Then, you go to Vendor 2, divide 30.76/4 and that makes the answer $7.69.

7.74 - 7.69 = 0.05

Vendor 1 has more then Vendor 2 by 5 cents.

Answer:

y = 3x + 3

Step-by-step explanation

Values on the y-axis are increasing by 3, while values on the x axis are increasing by 1, so the slope is 3/1 or just 3

To find b, you the slope, 3, from the 6. You also subtract 1 from 1 in the x-collum. You do this to find the y-intercept, or when x=0.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It's option 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It is 3031.49 Inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

77 times 39.37

= 3031.49

Answer:

a part, share, or number considered in comparative relation to a whole.

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps

mark me brainliest pls

Answer:

plz mark me as a brainliest

Answer:

2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

3+6t=3t+5

like terms together

6t-3t=5-3

3t=2

t=2/3

Answer:5 Penny's everyday for thirdy days

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

45

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

80

Step-by-step explanation:

8x10= 80

[tex]▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪  {\huge\mathfrak{Answer}}▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪▪[/tex]

Let's solve for a :

Answer:

The like-terms equation would be:

10x - 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

11p^(13)

10m^(15)

Step-by-step explanation:

11×11=121 so sqrt(121)=11

Since 26/2=13, then p^(13)×p^(13)=p^(26). This implies sqrt(p^26)=p^13.

sqrt(121p^26)=11p^(13)

In short, you just find sqrt of 121 since 121 is a perfect square and then do p^(26/2) since 26 is even and be done.

Other problem is similar.

Sqrt(100)=10 and m^(30/2)=m^(15).

The answer is 10m^(15).

Answer:

x > -2

Step-by-step explanation:

3x>-6

Divide each side by 3

3x/3 > -6/3

x > -2

De acuerdo con los cálculos realizados en el presente desarrollo, el valor del número menor es 233.

Dado que la suma de cuatro números consecutivos es 938, para determinar cuál es el valor del número menor se debe realizar el siguiente cálculo:

Por lo tanto, el valor del número menor es 233.

Aprende más en https://brainly.com/question/12980784

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

In this cofiguration, there are 8 angles. 4 equal one value and 4 are their supplements of the first 4.

6 and 80 and 2 and 3 are all equal to 80 degrees.

1 4 5 and 8 are the supplements. So whatever their value, they are all equal to the same thing. <1 = <8

They are supplementary to the 80 degree angle

<1 + 80 = 180             Subtract 80 from both sides

<1 = 180 - 80

<1 = 100

So angle 1 and <8 both equal 100 degrees.

Answer:

Alternate exterior angles.

Step-by-step explanation:

Alternate exterior angles are angles on opposing sides of the transversal and the outside of the parallel lines. Moreover, they are congruent. Therefore, ∠1 ≅ ∠8.

[tex]\large\underline{\sf{Solution-}}[/tex]

We have to prove that:

[tex]\rm\longmapsto \dfrac{ \sin(x) - 2 \sin^{3} (x) }{2 \cos^{3} (x) - \cos(x) } = \tan(x) [/tex]

Taking LHS, we get:

[tex]\rm = \dfrac{ \sin(x) - 2 \sin^{3} (x) }{2 \cos^{3} (x) - \cos(x) }[/tex]

We can take sin(x) as common from numerator part. We get:

[tex]\rm = \dfrac{ \sin(x) \{1- 2 \sin^{2} (x) \}}{2 \cos^{3} (x) - \cos(x) }[/tex]

Similarly, we can take cos(x) as common from first two terms. We get:

[tex]\rm = \dfrac{ \sin(x) \{1- 2 \sin^{2} (x) \}}{ \cos(x) \{ 2 \cos^{2} (x) -1\}}[/tex]

[tex]\rm = \dfrac{ \sin(x) }{ \cos(x) } \cdot \dfrac{\{1- 2 \sin^{2} (x) \}}{\{ 2 \cos^{2} (x) -1\}}[/tex]

As we know that:

[tex]\rm\longmapsto \dfrac{ \sin(x) }{ \cos(x) } = \tan(x) [/tex]

We get:

[tex]\rm = \tan(x) \cdot \dfrac{\{1- 2 \sin^{2} (x) \}}{\{ 2 \cos^{2} (x) -1\}}[/tex]

Now, we will expand the terms in fraction:

[tex]\rm = \tan(x) \cdot \dfrac{\{1- \sin^{2} (x) - { \sin }^{2}(x) \}}{\{\cos^{2} (x) + \cos^{x}(x) -1\}}[/tex]

As we know that:

[tex]\rm \longmapsto \sin^{2}(x)+cos^{2}(x)=1[/tex]

[tex]\rm \longmapsto\cos^{2}(x)=1-sin^{2}(x)[/tex]

[tex]\rm \longmapsto\cos^{2}(x) - 1=-sin^{2}(x)[/tex]

Now substitute the values in the expression, we get:

[tex]\rm = \tan(x)\cdot \dfrac{ \cos^{2} (x)-{ \sin }^{2}(x)}{\cos^{2} (x) - \sin^{2} (x) }[/tex]

[tex]\rm = \tan(x)\cdot1[/tex]

[tex]\rm = \tan(x)[/tex]

Here, we notice that LHS = RHS

Proved.

Your answer makes sense. Though I would recommend using a different variable for each dog at the kennel. Like D. But other than that you're good!

Answer:

144 Kilometers per Hour = 40 Meters per Second

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply the value in kilometers per hour by the conversion factor '0.27777777777778'.

So, 144 kilometers per hour = 144 × 0.27777777777778 = 40 meters per second.

please mark 4 brainliests.

Answer: 40 m/s

Step-by-step explanation: you can multiplied by 5/18 to convert km/h to m/s ,and you can multiplied by 18/5 to convert m/s to km/h.

Answer: 3

Step-by-step explanation:

a) x = -2 y = -1 so (-2,-1)

Answer:

(- 2, - 1 ) and (- 3, 0 ) , (- 1, 0 )

Step-by-step explanation:

(a)

The coordinates of the turning point ( vertex ) = (- 2, - 1 )

(b)

The roots are where the graph crosses the x- axis , that is

(- 3, 0 ) and (- 1, 0 )