Discuss the following :
" Discuss the concept of Cognitive Moral Development."
" Discuss the Levels of Cognitive Moral Development According to Kohlberg."
Use proper references to support your discussion.

Answers

Answer 1

Cognitive moral development, as described by Kohlberg, refers to the progressive development of moral reasoning through six stages categorized into three levels: pre-conventional, conventional, and post-conventional.

Cognitive moral development, as conceptualized by Lawrence Kohlberg, refers to the process through which individuals acquire and develop their moral reasoning abilities. It is based on the idea that moral reasoning progresses in a sequential and hierarchical manner, with individuals advancing through different levels of moral development.

According to Kohlberg, there are six stages of cognitive moral development grouped into three levels: pre-conventional, conventional, and post-conventional. In the pre-conventional level, moral reasoning is primarily driven by self-interest and the avoidance of punishment. It consists of Stage 1, which focuses on obedience and punishment avoidance, and Stage 2, which emphasizes individualism and exchange.

In the conventional level, individuals begin to internalize societal norms and rules. Stage 3 centers on seeking approval and maintaining social relationships, while Stage 4 focuses on following laws and upholding social order.

The post-conventional level represents a higher level of moral reasoning, where individuals develop their own ethical principles based on abstract concepts of justice, human rights, and universal principles. Stage 5 emphasizes social contract and individual rights, while Stage 6 centers on universal ethical principles and personal conscience.

It's important to note that not all individuals reach the highest stages of moral development, and progression through the stages can be influenced by various factors such as culture, education, and life experiences.

References:

Kohlberg, L. (1981). The Philosophy of Moral Development: Moral Stages and the Idea of Justice. Harper & Row.

Rest, J. R. (1986). Moral Development: Advances in Research and Theory. Praeger Publishers.

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Related Questions

how did an annexed colonial compare to a sphere of
influence?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

A sphere of influence and annexed colonial territory are two different ways that a dominant state might exert political control over another region. This is how they contrast:

Annexed Colonial Territory: A region that has been entirely incorporated into the governmental system of the dominating power is referred to as an annexed colonial territory. It entails the ruling power's direct political control and administration of the colonial area. The dominant power has considerable control over all facets of government, including judicial procedures, economic principles, and social institutions. The territory that has been annexed is typically regarded as being an integral part of the dominating nation, with its population frequently being bound by its rules and laws. India, ruled by the British, and Puerto Rico, ruled by the United States, are two examples of annexed colonial territory.Sphere of Influence: On the other hand, a sphere of influence refers to a more covert form of control by a dominant power over a specific area or nation. In a sphere of influence, the dominant power exerts significant political, economic, or military influence without necessarily exercising direct rule over the affairs of the affected territory. The dominant power frequently has the potential to influence the political and economic choices of the affected countries and may have control over commerce, investment, or strategic interests in the sphere. Although the influenced nation typically keeps its own political system and administrative setup, its policies and actions frequently reflect those of the dominating state.

Mughals Visit an Encampment of "Sadhus," mostly likely illustrates these three ascetic orders. Dasnami, Sannyasis, Nathas 12. This belief, promoted by Adi Shankara, is deep in the belief of the Tantric yogis, that there is non-duality, Atman and Brahman are one. Advaita vedata vasista 13. The Hatha Yoga Pradipika, was written by a disciple of the founder of the Naths. This written work discusses the use of this many postures. Sanskrit maval 15 14. This pose, the corpse pose, is not the most difficult, but one of the most beneficial poses. True 15. The Shiva Samhita, written in the 14th century, states the use of this many poses. 84 16. Gheranda Samhita written in the 17th century states that Shiva describes this many poses, but only 84 are the best and 32 are the most useful. 17. This pose, the Lord of the Fish, or Seated twist pose, is named after which Nath? Matsyendra Pose er verd

Answers

The Lord of Fish or Seated twist pose is named after Nath yogi Matsyendranath and is also known as the "Matsyendrasana" pose.

Matsyendranath is considered one of the influential figures in Hatha Yoga and Tantra traditions. He is believed to have lived in the 9th or 10th century CE in India. Matsyendranath is regarded as one of the founding fathers of Hatha Yoga and is often associated with the development and dissemination of various yogic practices, including asanas (yoga postures). Also,  In this pose, the spine is twisted, providing a gentle massage to the abdominal organs and promoting flexibility and strength in the back, hips, and shoulders. It is a seated twist pose commonly practiced in various styles of yoga.

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1. The Indian Army wants to ascertain why young students do not select the armed forces as a career option in their graduation.
a) How would you formulate a research problem to resolve the objective?
b) How would be the variables under study?
c) How would you generate descriptive and relational hypothesis for your study?

Answers

a) Research problem formulation: The research problem can be formulated as "to investigate the factors that influence the career preferences of young students and determine the reasons for them not selecting the Indian Army as a career option in their graduation". This research problem will assist in addressing the objective that has been put forth by the Indian Army.  

b) Variables under study: The variables under study for the research problem would be independent and dependent variables.

Independent variables: The independent variables will be the factors that influence the career preferences of young students.

Dependent variables: The dependent variables will be the reasons that prevent young students from choosing the Indian Army as a career option.

c) Hypothesis generation: The descriptive and relational hypotheses for the study can be generated as follows:

Descriptive hypothesis: This hypothesis will describe the variables that have been selected for the study. For instance, "The majority of young students prefer to choose a career that offers a good work-life balance, job security, and high salary.

"Relational hypothesis: This hypothesis will establish a relationship between the independent and dependent variables. For instance, "The preference for job security and a high salary are the most significant factors that influence young students' career preferences, thereby leading them to select the corporate sector over the Indian Army."

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Identify one example of microagressions provided by Dr. Sue.
Why do you think this kind of microagression is hurtful to marginalized people?
Discuss one antidote to implicit bias provided by Dr. Sue.

Answers

One example of microaggressions provided by Dr. Sue is the common microaggression, “Where are you really from?” This is an expression that makes it seem like minorities are foreign to the US.

Dr. Sue has given several examples of microaggressions. One of them is the common microaggression “Where are you really from?” This expression is a microaggression because it creates the impression that minorities are not seen as full Americans and are not really from the US, while they might have been born and raised in the US. It implies that minorities are foreigners and do not belong in the country. The question also reveals that the questioner has already defined the minority person as different from them. The question can also be interpreted as an attempt to connect to the person’s background, but it can be offensive to a person who has never lived in their family’s country of origin, or who has been raised to identify with American culture.

This kind of microaggression is hurtful to marginalized people because it creates the impression that their identities are invalid and are not accepted. It can also remind people of the negative ways in which they have been treated in the past, and this can trigger anxiety, depression, and other mental health issues. The antidote to implicit bias provided by Dr. Sue is the training of people on how to recognize their own biases, which can help them to understand how their attitudes toward different groups can affect how they behave.

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Does aerobic exercise reduce blood serum cholesterol levels? To find out, a medical researcher assigned volunteers who were not already exercising regularly to do a randomly selected number of exercise hours per week. After 6 months of exercising the prescribed number of hours, each participant's cholesterol level was measured, yielding the data in the following table. Calculate the standard deviation and correlation coefficient. Show the work for your calculations to receive full credit. Hours of Exercise per Week Cholesterol Level 4 7 2 11 10 5 1 10 8 SDX= SDY= SSX= SSY = r= 220 180 210 170 190 230 200 210

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To ensure a representative sample of maximum-security inmates across different types of crimes (robbery, assault, and murder), the researcher should use stratified random sampling.

To carry out the sampling, the researcher needs to follow these steps. Firstly, they should obtain information about the actual proportions of inmates in each crime category in the prison population. This data can be obtained from official records or prison authorities.

Secondly, based on these proportions, the researcher calculates the required sample size for each crime category. For instance, if the prison population consists of 40% robbers, 30% assaulters, and 30% murderers, the researcher would aim for a sample with the same proportions. Finally, using a random selection method, such as a computer-generated random number generator, the researcher randomly selects the appropriate number of inmates from each crime category to create the sample.

By using stratified random sampling, the researcher can ensure that the sample closely reflects the distribution of crimes in the maximum-security prison population, thereby enhancing the generalizability of their findings.

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FILL THE BLANK.
Children are more likely to imitate behavior when ______.
A. they are proficient in language development
B. they have been exposed to formal education
C. the model is distant and powerful
D. the model is competent and powerful

Answers

Children are more likely to imitate behavior when the model is competent and powerful. Here option D is the correct answer.

Imitation is the behavior of an individual who is inspired by observing another person performing that behavior. The individual who is observing someone else performing the behavior is referred to as an observer, and the individual who is performing the behavior is referred to as a model.

Observers might imitate many behaviors they have witnessed from others throughout their lives, even in early childhood. Therefore, they are more likely to imitate behaviors when they are perceived as competent and powerful.

Children are particularly prone to imitating behaviors they observe in others, especially when the model is perceived as competent and powerful. This means that if a child sees someone who is skilled or influential engaging in a particular behavior, they are more likely to imitate it themselves. Therefore option D is the correct answer.

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From the Bible, what is the ministry and the destiny of the
remnant?

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According to the Bible, the ministry and destiny of the remnant is to be a faithful and obedient group of believers who will remain steadfast in their faith during times of adversity and trial.

They will act as a witness to others who have strayed from the path of righteousness and will help lead them back to God. The remnant is described as a group of people who have been chosen by God to be His witnesses and to carry out His purposes in the world. They are called to be holy and to follow God's commands in all that they do.The destiny of the remnant is ultimately to be with God in heaven.

They are promised eternal life in the presence of God, where they will be free from all pain, suffering, and evil. This promise is given to those who remain faithful to God and who endure to the end, even in the face of great opposition and persecution. The remnant is also called to share this hope with others, to be a light in the darkness, and to show others the way to salvation through faith in Jesus Christ.

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Select all the options that show that the MMPI is a reliable measure. Multiple answers: Multiple answers are accepted for this question Select one or more answers and submit. For keyboard navigation..

Answers

The MMPI is widely recognized as a reliable measure of personality and psychopathology. Here are some reasons why it is considered reliable:

Standardization: The MMPI has standardized administration procedures and scoring methods, ensuring consistent administration and interpretation across different individuals and settings.

Test-Retest Reliability: The MMPI demonstrates good test-retest reliability, meaning that individuals tend to receive similar scores when retested after a certain period, indicating consistency over time.

Internal Consistency: The MMPI includes multiple scales that measure different aspects of personality and psychopathology. These scales are designed to be internally consistent, meaning that the items within each scale should be correlated with each other.

Inter-Rater Reliability: Different raters or clinicians who interpret the MMPI results should arrive at similar conclusions or diagnoses. Inter-rater reliability helps ensure consistent interpretations of the test results.

Large Sample Size: The MMPI has been extensively researched and validated using large samples, contributing to its reliability and generalizability.

It's important to note that reliability is just one aspect of test quality, and other factors such as validity and appropriateness for specific populations should also be considered when evaluating a psychological measure.

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You should have 12 entries logged so far. This week you will add 3 more entries to the same document for a total of 15. This week's entries should come from textbook modules 7 & 22-24. Please continue to put new entries in a different color or in italics or bolded each week so that I can easily find them. ONLY those 3 new entries need to be different (all other entries from past weeks should be black/unbolded/no italics). Each entry should include: 1) a psychological term, concept, principle, or theory (a word or phrase), 2) the textbook module it is from, and a couple sentences that include 3) a description of the term in your own words (do NOT copy the definition directly from the textbook) AND 4) a justification of why you logged it under that particular perspective. A lot of examples this week might relate to the cognitive perspective since memory is such a cognitive function. But that doesn't meant that there aren't other relevant perspectives to consider as well (example: sociocultural influences on memory processes, biological mechanisms underlying memory formation, psychodynamic perspective on memories from childhood, etc.). Remember that all 3 entries should include a description of the term as well as a justification of why you logged it under that perspective. Specific information from the textbook is welcome!

Answers

The term "working memory" is defined as a system that enables the temporary storage and processing of information required for the completion of complex cognitive tasks.

According to module 7 of the textbook, working memory is defined as the mental workspace that stores and processes information temporarily to aid in problem-solving and decision-making processes.

It is a crucial component of the cognitive perspective because it provides a valuable insight into how the mind processes and organizes information to complete complex tasks.

Flashbulb memories are vivid, highly detailed, and long-lasting memories that are created in response to highly emotional and significant events.

The flashbulb memory phenomenon is an excellent example of this perspective because it demonstrates how cultural norms, values, and beliefs can shape our memories of significant events.

Long-term potentiation (LTP) is a process that strengthens synaptic connections between neurons in the brain. According to module 23 of the textbook, the biological perspective emphasizes the role of biological mechanisms and processes in shaping our memory processes.

LTP is an excellent example of this perspective because it demonstrates how changes in neuronal activity can lead to the formation and consolidation of long-term memories.

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what does “rumble” mean to each of the greasers? (be specific) how is having a “rumble” going to solve the problems between the greasers and socs?

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To the Greasers, "rumble" means a physical fight between them and the Socs. For Ponyboy, it is a terrifying experience that he wants to avoid. For Darry, it is a way to defend their territory and show the Socs that they are not weak. For Johnny, it is a way to stand up for himself and his friends.

Having a "rumble" is not going to solve the problems between the Greasers and Socs. It will only escalate the violence and deepen the divide between the two groups. The root of the problem is not the physical conflict, but the social and economic inequalities that exist between them. Only by addressing these issues can they hope to find a lasting solution to their problems.

5. What is another way of saying 4/4 meter? duple time double time common time step time

Answers

Another way of saying 4/4 meter is common time.

4/4 meter is also known as common time. It is the most popular meter in western music, and the time signature consists of a top number 4, and a bottom number 4 which indicates that each measure has four quarter notes or the equivalent in eighth or sixteenth notes.

Duple time is a term used to refer to any music that has two beats in a bar, each of which is subdivided into two. Double time is also called duple time, which involves playing twice as fast as the initial tempo.

Step time is a recording technique that involves entering musical notes one at a time and generating a continuous performance from the notes entered.

Another way of saying 4/4 meter is common time. Common time (also known as "C time") is a musical meter that has four quarter-note beats in each measure. It is represented by the symbol "C" at the beginning of a piece of sheet music.

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reate a presentation that shows your journey of learning education psychology this semester. Where did you start? Where are you now? Where would you still like to grow and develop? How will this affect your classroom?
You should focus on no less than four different topics covered in this course.
This presentation should have citations and research, not just general statements. It should be professional in nature with no grammatical, punctuation, formatting errors.

Answers

Understanding how people learn and develop in educational environments is the main goal of the branch of study known as educational psychology.

Educational psychology blends psychological and educational ideas and principles to offer insights into a range of teaching, learning, and student development topics. Educational psychologists use their expertise to enhance learning settings, improve teaching methods, and assist students' general wellbeing.

Key Topics in Educational Psychology:

Cognitive Development:

Examines how individuals acquire knowledge, process information, and think.

Studies cognitive processes such as memory, attention, problem-solving, and critical thinking.

Explores theories like Piaget's stages of cognitive development and Vygotsky's sociocultural theory.

Motivation and Learning:

focuses on the elements that affect people's desire to learn and participate in educational activities.

examines notions including the self-determination theory and Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

examines methods for boosting intrinsic motivation, goal-setting, and self-regulated learning.

Classroom Management:

Addresses the organization and management of classrooms to create an optimal learning environment.

Covers strategies for establishing rules, promoting positive behavior, and addressing disruptive behaviors.

Considers factors like classroom climate, teacher-student relationships, and effective instructional techniques.

Assessment and Evaluation:

focuses on the method of evaluating pupils' learning, development, and accomplishment.

explores many assessment techniques, such as formative and summative evaluations, standardized examinations, and alternative evaluations.

the validity, reliability, fairness, and the utilization of assessment results to inform instruction are all taken into account.

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You are performing psychoanalysis on a patient and trying to gain insight on the patient's relationships. The patient becomes very angry at you, the therapist, while speaking about their mother. According to psychoanalysis, what is this called? O Resistance O Free association Interpretation O Transference Question 54 O Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) 1 pts Which type of psychotherapy emphasizes using active-listening and being non-directive in its treatment? Client-centered therapy O Psychoanalysis O Rational-emotive behavioral therapy (REBT) 1 pts

Answers

In psychoanalysis, when a patient becomes angry at the therapist while discussing their mother, it is referred to as transference. Client-centered therapy is a type of psychotherapy that emphasizes active listening and being non-directive in its treatment approach.

In psychoanalysis, transference occurs when the patient redirects emotions, desires, and feelings onto the therapist that originally belonged to significant figures in their life, such as parents or caregivers.

This can include anger, love, resentment, or other intense emotions. When the patient becomes angry at the therapist while discussing their mother, it is an example of transference.

The patient's anger is not directed solely at the therapist but represents unresolved feelings and conflicts associated with the patient's relationship with their mother.

It provides valuable insights into the patient's unconscious dynamics and past experiences that can be explored and worked through in therapy.

Client-centered therapy, on the other hand, is a type of psychotherapy developed by Carl Rogers. It emphasizes creating a supportive and empathetic therapeutic environment where the therapist actively listens and reflects the client's feelings, thoughts, and experiences without judgment or interpretation.

The therapist takes a non-directive approach, allowing the client to lead the session and make their own discoveries. This therapy aims to enhance self-awareness, self-acceptance, and personal growth through the therapeutic relationship.

By actively listening and being non-directive, the therapist encourages the client's self-exploration and self-expression, promoting a sense of empowerment and autonomy in the therapeutic process.

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In the Batson et al. study on empathy and altruism, participants observed "Elaine" receive electrical shocks while she performed a memory task. Both empathy for Elaine and ease of escape for the participants were manipulated by the experimenters. In the easy escape conditions, if participants had been only egoistically motivated, then they should have chosen to help, but only if they felt no empathy for Elaine. not to help, but only if they felt no empathy for Elaine, to help if they were not similar to Elaine. to help, regardless of whether they were in the high or low empathy conditions

Answers

In the Batson et al. study on empathy and altruism, participants observed "Elaine" receive electrical shocks while she performed a memory task. Both empathy for Elaine and ease of escape for the participants were manipulated by the experimenters. In the easy escape conditions, if participants had been only egoistically motivated, then they should have chosen to help, but only if they felt no empathy for Elaine.

Only if they had no sympathy for Elaine would they refuse to assist. In the study on empathy and altruism by Batson et al., participants watched "Elaine" endure electrical shocks as she worked on a memory test. The experimenters deliberately influenced the participants' ability to flee and their empathy for Elaine. Participants in the easy escape conditions should have opted to assist Elaine if they had been purely egotistical in their motivations, but only if they had felt no remorse for her.

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explain the displacement present in the short story the home place
by guy vandehaeghe in 1200 words.

Answers

"The Home Place" is a short story written by Guy Vanderhaeghe that explores the theme of displacement. In this story, Vanderhaeghe portrays the experiences of the protagonist, Arnold, and his struggle to find a sense of belonging in a changing world. Through various narrative elements, Vanderhaeghe effectively conveys the complex emotions and challenges associated with displacement.

The story is set in the Canadian prairies during the early 1900s, a time when rapid industrialization and urbanization were disrupting traditional rural communities. Arnold, a young man who grew up on a farm, finds himself torn between his deep connection to the land and his aspirations for a different life in the city. This internal conflict becomes the driving force behind the theme of displacement in the story.

The physical landscape serves as a metaphorical representation of the displacement experienced by Arnold. Vanderhaeghe vividly describes the prairie land as a place of familiarity and comfort for Arnold. The rolling fields, vast open spaces, and the sense of solitude evoke a sense of belonging and harmony. However, as the story progresses, the encroachment of urban development threatens to disrupt this idyllic existence. Vanderhaeghe employs vivid imagery to depict the transformation of the landscape, highlighting the destruction of natural beauty and the loss of Arnold's connection to the land.

Arnold's internal conflict is further intensified by the presence of his family. His father, a stern and traditional man, embodies the values and way of life associated with the rural community. He is deeply rooted in the land and is resistant to change. On the other hand, Arnold's brother, Charlie, represents the desire for progress and a new way of life. Charlie is fascinated by the possibilities offered by the city and seeks to escape the monotony of rural existence.

This familial tension highlights the generational divide and the clash between tradition and modernity. Arnold, caught between these opposing forces, experiences a profound sense of displacement. He is torn between his loyalty to his family and their way of life and his own personal ambitions. This conflict is a reflection of the larger societal changes happening at the time, as rural communities struggled to adapt to the rapid pace of industrialization.

The theme of displacement is also evident in the character of Margaret, Arnold's love interest. Margaret, an educated woman from the city, symbolizes the allure of a different world outside the confines of the prairies. Arnold is drawn to her sophistication and her dreams of a more cosmopolitan life. However, their relationship becomes strained as their differing backgrounds and aspirations clash. Arnold's love for Margaret only amplifies his feelings of displacement, as he recognizes the growing divide between his rural roots and the urban world he desires.

Throughout the story, Vanderhaeghe employs various narrative techniques to convey the emotional impact of displacement. The use of vivid descriptions and sensory details immerses the reader in the physical and emotional landscapes of the characters. The author's careful choice of language evokes a sense of longing, nostalgia, and melancholy, effectively capturing the complex emotions associated with displacement.

In conclusion, "The Home Place" by Guy Vanderhaeghe explores the theme of displacement through the experiences of Arnold, a young man torn between his rural upbringing and his aspirations for a different life in the city. Vanderhaeghe employs various narrative elements to convey the challenges, conflicts, and emotional turmoil associated with displacement. Through vivid imagery, familial tensions, and the portrayal of changing landscapes, Vanderhaeghe creates a poignant and thought-provoking exploration of the human condition in the face of societal transformation.

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QUESTION 1 Inserting a medical instrument through each eye socket was part of a a. the double-blind procedure. Ob. ECT. c. rTMS Od. a lobotomy.

Answers

Inserting a medical instrument through each eye socket was part of a lobotomy. The correct option is d. a lobotomy

A lobotomy is a surgical procedure that involves the severing of connections in the brain's prefrontal lobe. It was most commonly used in the mid-20th century as a treatment for mental illnesses such as depression and anxiety as well as physical disorders such as chronic pain, but it is now considered an outdated and controversial practice.

Inserting a medical instrument through each eye socket was part of a lobotomy. The procedure was done by inserting a sharp instrument (such as an ice pick) into the brain through the eye socket, breaking the connections between the prefrontal cortex and the rest of the brain.

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Dr. Wade excitedly explains that the difference between male and a female mating behaviors in bars. She is so pleased that you have asked about her research that she eagerly shares research on how our past genetic heritage has given us the ability to adapt and survive, emphasizing how our motivations can be impacted by reproduction. Dr. Wade is operating in which paradigm? O humanistic approach behavioral approach O neuroscience or biolgical approach O psychoanlytic approach o evolutionary approach

Answers

Dr. Wade is operating in the evolutionary approach paradigm.

The evolutionary approach examines human behavior through the lens of evolution and natural selection. It emphasizes how our past genetic heritage has shaped our behaviors, including mating behaviors, as adaptations for survival and reproduction. Dr. Wade's focus on the differences between male and female mating behaviors and the impact of reproduction on motivations aligns with the core principles of the evolutionary approach, making it the most fitting paradigm in this context. This approach seeks to understand human behavior by considering how it has been influenced by evolutionary processes over time.

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Power relating to social status is premised on a willingness to
"participate"; what might constitute criteria for
non-participation, and should we think of this as a power
instrument? (please answ

Answers

The term "power" refers to the ability to make decisions and act on them.

Social Status is defined as the degree of prestige and respect that someone holds in a society.

Power relating to social status is premised on a willingness to "participate."

Non-participation refers to the act of abstaining or choosing not to participate.

There are a variety of reasons why someone might choose not to participate, including:

1. Lack of interest: A person may not be interested in a particular activity or opportunity for any number of reasons.

2. Lack of skill: A person may lack the necessary skills to participate in an activity.

3. Disagreement: A person may disagree with the principles or values that underlie an activity.

4. Health: A person's health may prevent them from participating in an activity.

5. Personal responsibilities: A person may have other responsibilities that make participation difficult.

Can choosing not to participate, i.e. non-participation be considered a power instrument?

There are different opinions on whether or not non-participation should be viewed as a power instrument.

Some scholars argue that the choice to abstain is itself an exercise of power, as it allows individuals to preserve their autonomy and resist pressure from others.

However, others argue that non-participation should not be seen as a power instrument, as it only has power in the absence of participation. In other words, non-participation does not exert power in itself, but only because others have decided to participate. Additionally, non-participation can also result in isolation and exclusion from social circles, limiting social status.

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can
someone help me to answer these questions please? Thank you!
QUESTION 71 Why did surgeons sometimes cut the corpus callosum? O a. to relieve epilepsy O b. to treat severe schizophrenia O c. to prevent criminal sexual behavior O d. to decrease painful headaches

Answers

Surgeons sometimes cut the corpus callosum to relieve epilepsy.

The corpus callosum is a vast white matter tract that connects the two hemispheres of the brain. Because it connects the two sides of the brain, it is responsible for communicating information between them. Epilepsy patients were often treated with surgery to relieve their seizures, which are caused by overactive brain activity. In the 1940s and 1950s, brain surgeries were conducted to treat seizures.

A surgical procedure in which the corpus callosum is severed to eliminate the spread of epileptic seizures from one hemisphere to the other is known as the corpus callosotomy. The corpus callosotomy is performed when an individual has seizures that begin on one side of the brain and propagate to the other side. The procedure is done when anti-seizure medicines aren't working. The surgery is highly specialized, and it is only done on patients who have severe epilepsy and have not responded to other treatments.

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Knowing the trends and the diagnostic differences in ICD and DSM, do you think the changes in DSM-5’s criteria may have affected diagnostic rates of ADHD in the US? It is a common criticism that the DSM-5’s criteria may over-diagnose children with ADHD. Do you think this may actually be happening?

Answers

The changes in DSM-5's criteria for ADHD may have influenced the diagnostic rates of ADHD in the US, and it is a common criticism that the DSM-5 may result in over-diagnosis of children with ADHD. However, whether this over-diagnosis is actually occurring requires a nuanced examination of multiple factors, including diagnostic practices, societal trends, and potential overemphasis on diagnostic criteria.

The changes in diagnostic criteria introduced in DSM-5 may have had an impact on the diagnostic rates of ADHD in the US. The revised criteria expanded the age range for symptom onset, lowered the required number of symptoms, and allowed for more flexibility in diagnosing ADHD subtypes. These changes potentially broadened the scope of individuals who may meet the diagnostic criteria for ADHD.

However, determining whether the DSM-5's criteria are leading to over-diagnosis of ADHD requires considering multiple factors. Diagnostic rates can be influenced by various factors, such as increased awareness, improved screening methods, evolving societal expectations, and changes in diagnostic practices. It is essential to assess whether the observed increase in diagnostic rates is solely due to the changes in criteria or if other factors are contributing to the perceived over-diagnosis.

Additionally, critics argue that the reliance on DSM-5's criteria and the medicalization of behavioral issues may lead to the over-diagnosis of ADHD in children. The concern is that certain normal variations in behavior or developmental stages might be pathologized, leading to unnecessary treatment or labeling. However, it is important to consider that ADHD is a genuine neurodevelopmental disorder that can significantly impact individuals' lives, and appropriate diagnosis and treatment are crucial for those who genuinely meet the diagnostic criteria.

In conclusion, while the changes in DSM-5's criteria for ADHD may have influenced diagnostic rates and the concern of over-diagnosis exists, it is necessary to examine multiple factors to determine if over-diagnosis is actually occurring. A comprehensive evaluation of diagnostic practices, societal trends, and the potential impact of diagnostic criteria is essential to understand the complex dynamics surrounding ADHD diagnoses in the US.

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A(n) sample is one in which every person in the population being studied is assured an equal chance of being included. a. random b. snowball c. consistent d. all of the above 21. Fred has been hired to conduct consumer research for the Chrysler Corporation. They are interested in finding if the population in Detroit prefers Chryslers or Toyotas. Fred has drawn his sample from the union membership lists of the Chrysler Corporation and has concluded that people in Detroit overwhelmingly prefer Chryslers to Toyotas. His research is an example of misrepresentation because Fred a. asked biased questions b. chose a biased sample c. listed biased choices d. discarded undesirable results 22. Mattie has volunteered at the local crisis center. While she is participating as a volunteer, she is given permission to gather data on the number of women who report being abused, and the number of women who later participated in counseling. Mattie is using as a method of gathering data. a. structure interviews b. secondary analysis c. content analysis d. participant observation 23. Higher education leads to greater earnings over a lifetime. In this example "higher education" is a. an independent variable b. a dependent variable c. a random sample d. spurious variable 20.

Answers

1. A random sample is one in which every person in the population being studied is assured an equal chance of being included. Therefore, the correct option is a. random.

2.  Mattie is using participant observation as a method of gathering data. Therefore, the correct option is d. participant observation.

3. An independent variable is a variable whose variation does not depend on any other variable. Therefore, the correct option is a. an independent variable.

Random sampling used in research to select participants or data points from a larger population in a way that each member has an equal chance of being included. It helps to ensure representativeness and minimize bias, allowing for generalizations to be made about the population based on the sample.

Participant observation is a research method where the researcher immerses themselves in the social setting being studied, actively participating in the activities and interactions while also observing and documenting their observations. It provides an in-depth understanding of the social context and allows for the collection of rich qualitative data.

An independent variable is a variable manipulated or controlled by the researcher in an experiment to determine its effect on the dependent variable. It is the variable that is hypothesized to cause changes in the dependent variable. By controlling and varying the independent variable, researchers can investigate causal relationships and make inferences about cause and effect.

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I am being asked to write a 10 pg research proposal in APA for my biological psychology class. This is the format that I am being given. I'm starting the outline and am confused about which headers to use as level one vs two. Can you comment on if you thing this would be appropriate? (My interpretation is at the bottom)
Instructions
For this assessment, propose a study plan in which you will research the hypothesis for a research problem of your choosing, relevant to biological psychology. Format your paper using the following headings, as well as the APA Paper Template [DOCX]:
Introduction:
Introduce your topic.
State the hypothesis.

Answers

Introduction: You can use this heading for your introduction section where you will introduce your topic and state your hypothesis. This section should also include the research problem that you will investigate. The introduction section should be about one page long, and should provide a brief overview of the research that you will be conducting.

Literature Review: In this section, you will need to conduct a literature review of the previous studies that have been conducted on the research problem that you will investigate. This section should be about three to four pages long, and should critically evaluate the previous research studies that have been conducted on the topic.

Methods: In this section, you will need to describe the methodology that you will use to conduct your research. You should also describe the research design that you will use, and the data collection methods that you will use to collect your data. This section should be about three to four pages long, and should include a detailed description of your research design, data collection methods, and analysis plan.

Results: In this section, you will need to report the results of your research. You should also interpret the results of your research, and discuss the implications of your research findings. This section should be about one to two pages long, and should provide a detailed discussion of your research findings.

Discussion: In this section, you will need to discuss the implications of your research findings, and provide recommendations for future research. This section should be about one to two pages long, and should provide a detailed discussion of the implications of your research findings and recommendations for future research.

Conclusion: In this section, you will need to provide a brief summary of your research findings, and discuss the contribution of your research to the field of biological psychology. This section should be about half a page long, and should provide a clear summary of your research findings and the contribution of your research to the field of biological psychology.

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What differentiates bottom-up processing from top-down processing? a) the direction of scanning b) the pattern of organization c) the source of information d) the pathway of action

Answers

Bottom-up processing starts with individual elements and builds up perception, while top-down processing relies on pre-existing knowledge and expectations. The difference lies in the source of information used for processing. So, the correct option is c.    

Bottom-up processing refers to the processing of information that starts with the individual elements and builds up to create a complete perception or understanding. It is driven by the sensory input and focuses on the raw data or stimuli received from the environment. This process involves the analysis of specific details and features to form a larger perception or interpretation.

On the other hand, top-down processing refers to the processing of information that starts with pre-existing knowledge, expectations, and context to interpret and make sense of incoming sensory input. It involves using prior knowledge, beliefs, and experiences to guide perception and understanding. Top-down processing relies on cognitive processes such as memory, attention, and conceptual frameworks to shape and influence perception.

In summary, the main difference between bottom-up processing and top-down processing lies in the source of information. Bottom-up processing starts with the sensory input and analyzes individual elements to form a perception, while top-down processing relies on pre-existing knowledge and expectations to interpret and make sense of the sensory input.

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As discussed in class, which of these is more likely to accelerate Aging? o Orange Juice O Cigarette Smoking O Reading, Crossword Puzzles, and Social Interaction O Genetics

Answers

As discussed in class, the following is more likely to accelerate aging: cigarette smoking. Here option B is the correct answer.

Cigarette smoking is the most likely to accelerate the process of aging. The human body is extremely susceptible to the harmful effects of cigarette smoke. Cigarette smoke contains a variety of toxins that can cause significant damage to the body.

The body's cells can be seriously harmed by these toxins, resulting in a variety of health issues. DNA damage and cellular mutations are among the most significant health risks associated with smoking. Blood vessels can be damaged by cigarette smoke, which can cause wrinkles and other skin issues.

Smoking can also cause chronic inflammation, which has been linked to a variety of age-related health problems. Overall, cigarette smoking is the most likely to accelerate the process of aging. Therefore option B is the correct answer.

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Complete question:

As discussed in class, which of these is more likely to accelerate Aging?

A - Orange Juice

B - Cigarette Smoking

C - Reading, Crossword Puzzles, and Social Interaction

D - Genetics

Marta is a dean at Linden State University, a school with an enrollment of almost 20,000 students. In her daily activities, Marta has to deal with problems that involve students, faculty, curriculum, budgets, and a variety of other things. Marta is currently focusing her efforts on fundraising. She sees this generation as the cohort on which to focus most of her attention. Gen Y, because it is the wealthiest generation the Baby Boomers, because they are the most ethical generation the Baby Boomers, because they are the largest and wealthiest generation the Post-Millennials, because they are the largest generation that is still looking forward to college

Answers

In her role as Dean of Linden State University, Marta has a variety of responsibilities, including the management of students, faculty, the curriculum, the budget, and other aspects related to the functioning of the University. Marta's current focus is on her fundraising efforts and identifying generations who want to reach out to her efforts.

Marta considers this generation to be the wealthiest compared to baby boomers. However, it is important to note that wealth can vary greatly within generations. While some millennials may have amassed wealth, others may be saddled with student loan debt or facing financial hardship. So targeting her entire Gen Y based on wealth alone may not be accurate or effective.

Marta considers this generation to be the most ethical. While it is true that baby boomers are associated with social and cultural change, their designation as the most ethical generation is subjective and may not apply to all individuals in this population. . Generalizations about ethical behavior can ignore the diversity of perspectives and values ​​within each generation.

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Research the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) and provide
an example of what would be considered a "reasonable accommodation"
under the ADA.

Answers

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) is a federal law in the United States that prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities in various areas, including employment, public accommodations, transportation, and telecommunications.

The ADA requires employers and other entities to provide "reasonable accommodations" to qualified individuals with disabilities, enabling them to have equal opportunities and access.

A "reasonable accommodation" refers to modifications or adjustments made to a job, workplace, or environment that allows an individual with a disability to perform essential job functions or access facilities or services. The specific accommodation required may vary depending on the nature of the disability and the individual's needs. Here is an example of a reasonable accommodation under the ADA:

Suppose an employee with a visual impairment is having difficulty accessing printed documents required for their job tasks. A reasonable accommodation in this case could be providing the employee with screen reading software or a screen magnification tool for their computer. This accommodation would enable the employee to read and navigate digital documents effectively, ensuring they can perform their job duties on an equal basis with their colleagues.

It is important to note that the determination of what constitutes a reasonable accommodation should be made on a case-by-case basis, considering the individual's disability, the job requirements, and available resources. The ADA emphasizes the importance of an interactive process between the employer and the employee to identify and implement appropriate accommodations.

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Explain the meaning of the insight "fusion of the digital,
biological, and physical worlds" according to your knowledge of
digital transformation in business today. 5 marks

Answers

The phrase "fusion of the digital, biological, and physical worlds" refers to the integration and convergence of technology, biological systems, and physical entities in the context of digital transformation in business.

It encompasses the increasing interconnectedness and interdependence of these three domains. In the digital transformation era, businesses are leveraging technologies such as the Internet of Things (IoT), artificial intelligence (AI), robotics, and augmented reality (AR) to merge the digital, biological (human), and physical realms. This fusion enables new opportunities for innovation, efficiency, and enhanced customer experiences.

For example, IoT devices and sensors can collect real-time data from physical objects and environments, which can then be analyzed using AI algorithms to extract valuable insights. This integration allows businesses to make data-driven decisions, optimize processes, and create personalized experiences for customers.

Overall, the fusion of the digital, biological, and physical worlds in business today represents the convergence of technologies and disciplines, leading to new possibilities for innovation, efficiency, and transformative experiences across various industries.

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What are Emma Seppala’s 3 suggestions for addressing
professional infractions?...............

Answers

Emma Seppala is a psychologist and science director of Stanford University's Center for Compassion and Altruism Research and Education. According to her, to handle professional misconduct in the workplace, here are three suggestions:

1. Encourage respect, well-being, and safety at work: Being considerate and compassionate to others, creating a safe workplace, and having respect for others is the most effective approach to address professional misconduct.

2. Cultivate understanding, learning, and growth: When someone in the workplace misbehaves, it might be a mistake or a lack of awareness. To prevent such a scenario in the future, it is necessary to promote learning and growth.

3. Increase self-awareness: We can improve our self-awareness by paying attention to our thoughts, emotions, and behaviors. It assists us in being more conscious of our actions, preventing future professional misconduct and misunderstandings.

This is how Emma Seppala's 3 suggestions for addressing professional infractions: Encourage respect, well-being, and safety at work, cultivate understanding, learning, and growth and increase self-awareness.

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Final answer:

Emma Seppala suggests three strategies for addressing professional infractions: seeking feedback, taking responsibility, and focusing on personal growth.

Explanation:

Emma Seppala suggests three strategies for addressing professional infractions:

Seek feedback and learn from the mistake to avoid repeating it in the future.Take responsibility for the error and apologize to those affected.Focus on personal growth and development by actively working on improving skills and knowledge.

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Prompt #1 - Two or perhaps three people are in an elevator. What
happens? How can you create tension/conflict to help this narrative
or poem become interesting? Think about describing through sensory

Answers

In an elevator, tension and conflict can be created through sensory descriptions, such as the characters' body language, the claustrophobic atmosphere, and the heightened senses of the individuals involved. This can add intrigue and make the narrative or poem more engaging.

To make the narrative or poem about people in an elevator interesting, tension and conflict can be effectively introduced through sensory descriptions.

Firstly, focusing on the characters' body language can convey their emotions and intentions. Describing their tense postures, fidgeting, or avoiding eye contact can create a sense of unease and anticipation.

Secondly, emphasizing the claustrophobic atmosphere inside the elevator can heighten the tension. Descriptions of the confined space, the close proximity of the individuals, and the mechanical noises of the elevator can increase the sense of discomfort and vulnerability. Lastly, leveraging the heightened senses of the characters can intensify the conflict.

Depicting the characters' acute awareness of each other's presence, the scent of sweat or perfume, or the sounds of heavy breathing can add layers of tension and intrigue.

By employing sensory descriptions, the narrative or poem can engage the reader or listener and make the experience of being in the elevator more vivid and gripping.

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Focus on the characters of the protagonists of the stories assigned for this week:
The narrator of "Cathedral"
Delia in "Sweat"
How would describe each character as a person? What are his or her main character traits? What appears to motivate his or her actions and behavior? And most importantly, do you think either character changes or grows (develops) at all as the story progresses?

Answers

Delia in "Sweat" undergoes a transformation from a submissive victim to a strong, independent woman, while the narrator in "Cathedral" evolves from a cynical and judgmental character to someone more open-minded and empathetic.

The characters of the protagonists of the stories assigned for this week are Delia in "Sweat" and the narrator in "Cathedral." Let's analyze each character in detail.

Delia in "Sweat": - Delia is a hard-working woman who works day and night to make ends meet. She is a washerwoman who is constantly washing white folks' clothes. She is the breadwinner of the family, and her husband, Sykes, is a lazy, abusive man who does nothing to support her.

Her main character traits include resilience, persistence, and hardworking. She is a strong woman who can do anything to survive and make a living for herself and her family. Delia is a religious woman, and her faith gives her strength to deal with the adversities of life.

The main motivators of Delia's actions and behavior are survival and independence. She is motivated to work hard to provide for her family and be independent, so she does not have to depend on anyone.

Yes, Delia changes and develops as the story progresses. She starts off as a meek, submissive woman who allows her abusive husband to walk all over her. However, as the story progresses, she realizes that she does not have to put up with her husband's abuse and leaves him. In the end, she becomes a strong, independent woman who is no longer afraid of Sykes.

The narrator of "Cathedral": The narrator of "Cathedral" is an unnamed man who is not happy with his life. He is cynical, judgmental, and isolated. He does not have any friends and is always angry and frustrated.

His main character traits include anger, frustration, and cynicism. He is unhappy with his life and his marriage and is always judging people. The main motivator of the narrator's actions and behavior is his fear of change and his narrow-mindedness. He is afraid of the unknown and is unable to see beyond his prejudices.

Yes, the narrator changes and develops as the story progresses. Initially, he is judgmental and hostile towards Robert, the blind man. However, as the story progresses, he becomes more open-minded and empathetic towards Robert. By the end of the story, he has developed a deeper understanding and appreciation of blindness and of Robert as a person.

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Data processing and results requirements. 1. Record relevant information and experimental constants. Nozzle inner diameterd= 1.195 10-m. Piston diameterD=__ 1.995_x10-m A/C Transformer The input voltage to a transformer is 120 V RMS AC to the primary coil of 1000 turns. What are the number of turns in the secondary needed to produce an output voltage of 10 V RMS AC? As an engineer for a private contracting company, you are required to test some dry-type transformers to ensure they are functional. The nameplates indicate that all the transformers are 1.2 kVA, 120/480 V single phase dry type. (a) With the aid of a suitable diagram, outline the tests you would conduct to determine the equivalent circuit parameters of the single-phase transformers. (6 marks) (b) The No-Load and Short Circuit tests were conducted on a transformer and the following results were obtained. 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