Easy question about calories just need it for an assignment due right now. So pls help

If one gram of carbohydrates provides us with 4 calories and a can of soda has 40 grams of carbohydrates then how many calories are in a can of soda?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

44 Calories

Explanation:

You add 4 calories plus 40 grams.


Related Questions

Cash and cash equivalents include?

Answers

Answer:

Answer:Cash and cash equivalents refers to the line item on the balance sheet that reports the value of a company's assets that are cash or can be converted into cash immediately.Answer:Cash and cash equivalents refers to the line item on the balance sheet that reports the value of a company's assets that are cash or can be converted into cash immediately.Cash equivalents include bank accounts and marketable securities such as commercial paper and short-term government bonds.Answer:Cash and cash equivalents refers to the line item on the balance sheet that reports the value of a company's assets that are cash or can be converted into cash immediately.Cash equivalents include bank accounts and marketable securities such as commercial paper and short-term government bonds.Cash equivalents should have maturities of three months or less.Answer:Cash and cash equivalents refers to the line item on the balance sheet that reports the value of a company's assets that are cash or can be converted into cash immediately.Cash equivalents include bank accounts and marketable securities such as commercial paper and short-term government bonds.Cash equivalents should have maturities of three months or less.Cash equivalents must also be able to be liquidated to cash; for this reason, cash equivalents often have active markets.Answer:Cash and cash equivalents refers to the line item on the balance sheet that reports the value of a company's assets that are cash or can be converted into cash immediately.Cash equivalents include bank accounts and marketable securities such as commercial paper and short-term government bonds.Cash equivalents should have maturities of three months or less.Cash equivalents must also be able to be liquidated to cash; for this reason, cash equivalents often have active markets.A company carries cash and cash equivalents to pay its short-term bills but to also preserve capital for long-term capital deployment.

A physician orders a patient to have 50 mg of a medication. When the nurse checks, he notes that the medication is only available in 12.5-mg tablets. How many tablets should he give the patient?

Answers

4 tablets.

To determine how many 12.5-mg tablets are needed to administer a total of 50 mg of medication, you can use the following equation:

(Number of tablets) x (Strength per tablet) = Total medication strength

Let's solve for the number of tablets:

(Number of tablets) x (12.5 mg) = 50 mg

Divide both sides by 12.5 mg:

Number of tablets = 50 mg / 12.5 mg

Number of tablets = 4

The nurse should give the patient 4 tablets of 12.5 mg each to administer a total of 50 mg of the medication.

A 100-word essay detailing the importance of community service!

Answers

Answer:

Those who volunteer in the community are those who are willing to serve others. Those who have the ability should assist those in need. Community service is highly essential in today's culture. This is because people may grasp society's present condition and contribute to it through community service. Community service not only benefits society, but it also cultivates feeling and beautifies the spirit. Instead than waiting for the firm or school to organize community service, we should participate in it ourselves. Furthermore, volunteers contribute to society regardless of age, and they can get several benefits from community service. Volunteers, for example, are students. Kids can gain information outside of textbooks. They may anticipate society, experience society, and deliberately realize the beauties of life.

Explanation:

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What information do you need to share with your doctor to avoid a possible bad reaction to medication?

Answers

Information to be shared with the doctor to avoid bad reaction to medication include Current Medications, Medical History, Pregnancy or Breastfeeding.

Sharing Medication Information With your doctor.

To avoid a possible bad reaction to medication, it's important to share the following information with your doctor:

Current Medications: Inform your doctor of all the medications you are currently taking, including prescription drugs, over-the-counter medications, and dietary supplements.

Medical History: Inform your doctor of any past medical conditions, surgeries, allergies, and adverse reactions to medications.

Lifestyle: Inform your doctor of your lifestyle habits, including alcohol consumption, smoking, and recreational drug use.

Pregnancy or Breastfeeding: Inform your doctor if you are pregnant, planning to become pregnant, or currently breastfeeding.

Other Health Conditions: Inform your doctor if you have any other health conditions, such as liver or kidney disease, diabetes, or heart disease.

By providing this information to your doctor, they will be better equipped to prescribe medication that is safe and appropriate for you. It's important to follow your doctor's instructions carefully and to report any adverse reactions or side effects immediately.

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Round 58.6790691589 to the nearest hundred-thousandth

Answers

Answer:

58.67907

Explanation:

The hundred-thousandth digit in 58.6790691589 is the 9, and the digit to its right is 1. Since 1 is less than 5, we round down the 9 to 0 and drop all digits to the right of the hundred-thousandth place.

Therefore, rounding 58.6790691589 to the nearest hundred-thousandth gives us:

58.67907

Answer:

Round 58.6790691589 to the nearest hundred-thousandth

Explanation:

Round 58.6790691589 to the nearest hundred-thousandth

6. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test measures the level of PSA in a man’s blood and is widely used to screen for prostate cancer. A study was conducted to determine the diagnostic utility of PSA density in detecting clinically significant prostate cancer among 2162 men who underwent prostate biopsy. Among the 499 men known to be attacked with prostate cancer, 189 had a positive test Among the 1663 men designated free of prostate cancer , 1400 had a positive test .Calculate & interpret the following screening test value :

A. Draw Draw 2x2 table
B. Sensitivity
C. Specificity and
D. Positive predictive value
E. Negative predictive value
F. Accuracy

Answers

A. The 2x2 table for the PSA test is as follows:

| Prostate Cancer | No Prostate Cancer |

Positive Test | 189 | 1400 |

Negative Test | 310 | 262 |

B. Sensitivity = (True Positive) / (True Positive + False Negative)

Sensitivity = 189 / (189 + 310) = 0.378

C. Specificity = (True Negative) / (True Negative + False Positive)

Specificity = 1400 / (1400 + 262) = 0.842

D. Positive Predictive Value (PPV) = (True Positive) / (True Positive + False Positive)

PPV = 189 / (189 + 1400) = 0.119

E. Negative Predictive Value (NPV) = (True Negative) / (True Negative + False Negative)

NPV = 262 / (262 + 310) = 0.458

F. Accuracy = (True Positive + True Negative) / (True Positive + False Positive + True Negative + False Negative)

Accuracy = (189 + 262) / (189 + 1400 + 310 + 262) = 0.465

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What are the recommended nursing interventions when annIV becomes infiltrated? What are the recommended nursing interventions

Answers

discontinue the site and relocate the IV

Use the drop-down menus to complete the sentences.

A good speaker is not only aware of her spoken language, but also of her
Understanding your
means that you are able to communicate clearly with different types of people.

Answers

Answer:

1. body language

2. audience

Explanation:

Please brainliest if possible. And hope this helped you :D

which yoga teacher training school is best in india

Answers

Yoga India Foundation is a registered yoga school with Yoga Alliance, and it is located in Rishikesh, India. The school offers a variety of yoga teacher training programs, including a 200-hour foundational program and a 300-hour advanced program.

Here are some reasons why Yoga India Foundation may be a good option for your yoga teacher training:

Experienced and Qualified Teachers: The school has a team of experienced and qualified yoga teachers who are dedicated to sharing their knowledge and expertise with students. The teachers have completed their own yoga teacher training programs and have years of experience teaching yoga.

Comprehensive Curriculum: The yoga teacher training program at Yoga India Foundation covers all aspects of yoga practice, including asanas, pranayama, meditation, anatomy, philosophy, and teaching methodology. The program also includes practical teaching experience, which allows students to gain hands-on experience and develop their teaching skills.

Focus on Traditional Yoga: Yoga India Foundation emphasizes the traditional aspects of yoga practice, including Hatha, Ashtanga, and Vinyasa yoga styles. The school also offers courses in Ayurveda, the ancient Indian system of medicine and healing.

Personalized Attention: The school has a small class size, which allows for personalized attention and feedback from teachers. This ensures that students can develop their practice and teaching skills at their own pace and level.

Affordable Pricing: Yoga India Foundation offers affordable pricing for its yoga teacher training programs, making it accessible to students from all backgrounds and financial situations.

visit yogaindiafoundation to know more about yoga and yoga teacher trainiing in rishikesh, india

1. Infectious agents can be
transferred from one biological source to another through vertical or horizontal transfer. Using specific examples, discuss the various methods and their effectiveness in infection transmission.

2. Classify the following diseases according to their various water-related classes and give specific preventive measures as per their classification.
a. Caliciviruses
b.Giardiasis
c. Hepatitis
d. Japanese encephalitis
e. Lymphatic filariasis
f. Pseudomonas Dermatitis
g. Trachoma
h. Typhoid fever

Answers

Answer:

1. Infectious agents can be transferred through vertical or horizontal transfer. Vertical transfer occurs when an infectious agent is passed from a parent to offspring, while horizontal transfer occurs between individuals of the same or different species.

Examples of vertical transmission include:

Mother-to-child transmission of HIV: The human immunodeficiency virus can be passed from an infected mother to her baby during pregnancy, delivery, or breastfeeding.

Vertical transmission of bacterial infections: Certain bacterial infections, such as group B streptococcus and chlamydia, can be passed from mother to baby during delivery.

Examples of horizontal transmission include:

Direct contact transmission: This occurs when an infectious agent is transferred from one person to another through physical contact. Examples include touching, kissing, or sexual contact.

Indirect contact transmission: This occurs when an infectious agent is transferred from one person to another through a contaminated object or surface. Examples include touching a doorknob or sharing utensils.

Airborne transmission: This occurs when an infectious agent is spread through the air and can be breathed in by another person. Examples include tuberculosis and influenza.

Vector-borne transmission: This occurs when an infectious agent is spread by a living organism, such as a mosquito or tick. Examples include malaria and Lyme disease.

2. Classification of water-related diseases and their preventive measures:

a. Caliciviruses: These viruses can cause gastroenteritis, a disease that is spread through contaminated food or water. Preventive measures include washing hands with soap and water, avoiding contaminated food or water, and properly cooking food.

b. Giardiasis: This is a parasitic infection that is spread through contaminated water. Preventive measures include boiling or filtering water, washing hands with soap and water, and avoiding swallowing water from lakes, rivers, or streams.

c. Hepatitis: This is a viral infection that can be spread through contaminated water or food. Preventive measures include vaccination, washing hands with soap and water, and avoiding contaminated food or water.

d. Japanese encephalitis: This is a viral infection that is spread by mosquitoes. Preventive measures include using mosquito repellent, wearing protective clothing, and avoiding outdoor activities during peak mosquito hours.

e. Lymphatic filariasis: This is a parasitic infection that is spread by mosquitoes. Preventive measures include using mosquito repellent, wearing protective clothing, and taking medication to prevent infection.

f. Pseudomonas dermatitis: This is a skin infection that can be caused by exposure to contaminated water, such as in hot tubs or swimming pools. Preventive measures include avoiding sharing personal items, such as towels or razors, and properly maintaining hot tubs and swimming pools.

g. Trachoma: This is a bacterial infection that is spread through contact with infected eye secretions or flies. Preventive measures include washing hands with soap and water, avoiding contact with infected individuals, and controlling fly populations.

h. Typhoid fever: This is a bacterial infection that is spread through contaminated food or water. Preventive measures include vaccination, washing hands with soap and water, and avoiding contaminated food or water.

Drug of choice for treatment of CHF, especially in case of atria fibrillation A. ACEIS B. Diuretics C. Cardiac glycosides D. Beta blockers 26. r​

Answers

The drug of choice for treatment of CHF (Congestive Heart Failure), especially in the case of atrial fibrillation, is C. Cardiac glycosides.

Cardiac glycosides, such as digoxin, are medications that help to increase the strength and efficiency of the heart muscle's contractions. They are often used to treat CHF and other heart conditions, especially when there is atrial fibrillation present.

ACE inhibitors (A) and beta-blockers (D) are also commonly used to treat CHF, but they are not the drug of choice in the case of atrial fibrillation. Diuretics (B) are often used to help manage the fluid buildup that can occur with CHF, but they do not directly treat the condition itself.

Competitors in health care management

Answers

Competition would be the potential to provide a mechanism for reducing health care costs.

1. The impact of natural disasters are only seen among vulnerable populations
A) True
B) False

2. Incidence of non-communicable diseases will decrease as countries develop economically
A)True
(B)False

Answers

B) False. While vulnerable populations are often disproportionately impacted by natural disasters due to factors such as poverty and lack of access to resources, the impact of natural disasters can be seen across all populations.

Natural disasters can lead to loss of life, damage to infrastructure, and economic losses that affect everyone in the affected area.

B) False. Incidence of non-communicable diseases (NCDs) tends to increase as countries develop economically. This is due to a variety of factors, including changes in lifestyle and diet, increased use of tobacco and alcohol, and exposure to environmental factors such as air pollution.

As countries become more industrialized and urbanized, they often experience an epidemiological transition from communicable diseases to NCDs. To reduce the incidence of NCDs, it is important to implement effective prevention and treatment strategies, such as promoting healthy lifestyles, reducing tobacco and alcohol use, and addressing environmental risk factors.

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Hospice care is established to provide palliative care for terminally I’ll patients? True or false

Answers

Hospice is a comprehensive, all-encompassing program of care and assistance for terminally ill patients and their families. Instead of focusing on treating the patient's condition, hospice care shifts the emphasis to comfort care (palliative care) for pain alleviation and symptom management.

What is meant by palliative care?For those coping with a serious illness, such as cancer or heart failure, palliative care is specialized medical treatment. Patients may receive palliative care in addition to treatment meant to cure their serious illness or medical care for their symptoms. When a patient no longer has curative alternatives or decides against seeking therapy because the risks outweigh the benefits, they are receiving hospice care, which has no therapeutic goal. Comfort care, whether or not it has a curative purpose, is known as palliative care. Palliative care and end-of-life care are the same, right? No. Palliative care is significantly more comprehensive and can extend for longer than end-of-life care, even though it sometimes does. Some patients receive palliative care for years, so it's not a given that having it means you'll die soon.

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What does it mean for a food to be nutrient dense?

Answers

When a food is considered nutrient-dense, it means that it provides a significant amount of nutrients in relation to the number of calories it contains. This is important because it means you can get a lot of essential vitamins, minerals, and other nutrients without consuming excess calories, which can lead to weight gain and other health problems.

Nutrient-dense foods tend to be whole foods that are minimally processed, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats. These foods are rich in vitamins, minerals, fiber, and other beneficial compounds that support optimal health.

To determine whether a food is nutrient-dense, you can look at its nutrient profile, including its vitamin and mineral content, fiber content, and the amount of healthy fats and protein it provides. Foods that are high in nutrients and low in calories, saturated fats, and added sugars are generally considered to be the most nutrient-dense.

Is accessing your friends medical record from the ED a HIPPA violation?

Answers

Yes, snooping on healthcare records of family, friends, neighbors, co-workers, and celebrities is one of the most common HIPAA violations committed by employees. When discovered, these violations usually result in termination of employment but could also result in criminal charges for the employee concerned

Question 7 (2.5 points)
Past time focus is associated with culture and longstanding tradition
1) True
2) False

Answers

This is true culture and longstanding tradition was def past time focus

A male patient is placed on a new medication and notes that his breasts have become enlarged and tender to the touch. Which medication is he most likely taking? A. Chlorthalidone B. Furosemide C. D. Spironolactone E. Triamterene Hydrochlorothiazide​

Answers

Answer:D

Explanation:

5. List any two risk factors for continuous urine incontenence? 6. Name one contraceptive that protects against sexually transmitted infections (STIS)​

Answers

Answer:

Changes with age reduce how much your bladder can hold and increase the chances of involuntary urine release. Being overweight. Extra weight increases pressure on your bladder and surrounding muscles, which weakens them and allows urine to leak out when you cough or sneeze. Smoking.

Explanation: can i get brainliest

Being trusted _____.

A. Usually makes you want to trust other people in return.
B. Is a guarantee that you will always be trusted.
C. Is not a very important part of a relationship.
D. All of the above.

Answers

Answer:

D. All of the above is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Being trusted is a powerful tool that can be reciprocated, leading to a cycle of mutual trust. Trust is also essential in any meaningful relationship, whether it be personal or professional, and it is difficult to establish strong bonds without trust. Additionally, being trusted and trustworthy can open up opportunities in life, as people are willing to share valuable information and lend their support. Trust is an important part of any successful interaction, and its role in relationships cannot be underestimated.

The correct answer to your question is A) Usually makes you want to trust other people in return.

Answer choice B is incorrect as you can never guarantee that someone trusts you. You can be the best person in existence yet there will always be someone who does not trust you.

Answer choice C is incorrect as trust is the most important aspect of a relationship.

D is obsolete as both B and C are incorrect.

I hope this helps!

a food worker washed her hands in the bathroom and is now returning to her work duties?

Answers

Answer:

umm whats dont get it.whats the problem

Explanation:

im confused

pleaseeee helppppppp

Answers

i believe that the answer is B. my apologies if it is incorrect

what is healthy lifestyle ? ​

Answers

Answer:

A healthy lifestyle refers to a way of living that promotes physical, mental, and emotional well-being. It involves making conscious choices and decisions that positively impact one's overall health and wellness. A healthy lifestyle incorporates healthy habits such as regular exercise, balanced nutrition, adequate sleep, stress management, and avoidance of unhealthy habits such as smoking and excessive alcohol consumption.

Regular physical activity is an essential component of a healthy lifestyle as it helps to improve cardiovascular health, maintain a healthy weight, strengthen bones and muscles, and boost overall mental health. Eating a balanced diet that includes whole foods such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats is also crucial in maintaining good health. Sufficient sleep and stress management are also vital aspects of a healthy lifestyle as they help to regulate hormones, reduce inflammation, and boost overall mental health. Additionally, avoiding unhealthy habits such as smoking and excessive alcohol consumption can significantly improve one's overall health and well-being.

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At what stage does the umbilical cord develop?
O during the first trimester
O during the second trimester
O during ovulation
• during fertilization

Answers

Answer:

during the first trimester

Explanation:

Because The development of the umbilical cord begins in the third week of embryologic formation. The developing embryo consists of a trilaminar disc attached to the decidua basalis by the connecting stalk, the primitive umbilical cord.[1][2] The connecting stalk is a thick stalk of the extraembryonic membrane extending from the caudal end of the embryo to the center of the developing placenta on the decidua basalis.[3] The process of body folding occurs during week four with rapid growth amnion and embryonic disc compared to the yolk sac. Cranial caudal folding causes approximation of the connecting stalk and yolk sac on the ventral surface of the embryo.[1][2] The amnion expands to cover the entire embryo except for the rudimentary umbilical ring, where the connecting stalk and yolk sac emerge.[1][2] During this time, the allantois, an outpouching of the endodermal hindgut, forms and extends into the connecting stalk.[1][2][4] Between the fourth and eighth weeks, there is an increase in amniotic fluid production, which causes the amniotic cavity to swell and fill the chorionic space. This increase in the amniotic fluid also causes elongation of the connecting stalk, and the yolk sac is compressed down within the connecting stalk to form the omphalomesenteric or vitelline duct.[1][2][5] The expansion of the amniotic cavity causes the amnion and the chorion to come into contact, and the extraembryonic mesoderm covering these two layers fuses. As such, the chorionic cavity disappears, leaving the umbilical cord, the composite of the connecting stalk and vitelline duct surrounded by the amnion, floating in the amniotic fluid.[1][2][4]

Starting in week three, endothelial precursor cells in the mesoderm surrounding the allantois coalesce to form small capillaries. Vasculogenesis continues, and by the end of the third week, the capillaries have grown to establish a functional vascular network within the connecting stalk. During the same period, the arterial and venous systems within the embryo are developing. The arterial system is initially established as the paired dorsal aortae from which the aortic arches originate. The primitive venous system is initially made up of the umbilical, vitelline, and cardinal systems. Early in the fourth week, two umbilical arteries branch from the paired dorsal aortae to become connected to the vascular network of the umbilical cord.[1] During the fifth week, this connection is obliterated as the umbilical arteries develop their connection to a branch of the fifth pair of lumbar intersegmental arteries that will later become the internal iliac arteries.[1][2][4] The umbilical veins are originally bilateral and drain into the right and left sinus horns of the sinus venosus. The connections of the umbilical veins to the sinus horns regress in the second month with complete regression of the right umbilical vein as the left umbilical vein persists and forms its connection to the ductus venosus within the developing liver.[2][4] With the initiation of fetal heart pumping around week four, the umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the placenta, and the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood back to the fetus from the placenta.[4]

By week seven, the intestines begin to herniate out of the embryo through the umbilical ring and into the umbilical cord.[4][6][2] This physiologic herniation is necessary for proper rotation of the intestines and adequate growth of the fetus to house the expanding intestines.[6] The rapid development of the intestines causes elongation of the umbilical cord.[6] Between weeks ten and twelve, the intestines leave the umbilical cord and return to the abdominal cavity.[4][2][6] During this time, the extraembryonic mesoderm develops a rich extracellular matrix to protect the cord called Wharton’s jelly.[2][7] The umbilical cord continues to elongate during the second trimester with a length comparable to the crown-rump length of the fetus.[1][8] By term, the vitelline duct and allantois have typically completely involuted.[1][5] However, in some cases, remnants of the allantois and vitelline duct can be found in the umbilical cord proximal to the neonate.[2][5] At birth, the cord typically measures an average of 50 to 60 cm in length and 2 cm in diameter with up to 40 helical turns.[4][8] After the birth of the neonate, the umbilical cord is clamped and then cut as the neonate now breathes on its own, and the remainder of the umbilical cord is delivered along with the placenta .

yes I copy and paste

How do you identify rooms to be cleaned for the shift

Answers

Answer:

1.always clean before you leave

2.SOP for Entering the Guest Room

Knock the door with knuckles and announce in pleasant voice, “Housekeeping…”. Wait for five seconds to hear the guest's response. In case of no response, announce the same again. In there is no answer second time too, open the door with the key.

Explanation:

Explain why it is important to see children as soon as they arrive to the office.

Answers

Answer:

it is important to see children as soon as possible because little ones can be very impatient.

Explanation:

They could also get into things when left unattended.

There is a few reasons. The little ones can be inpatient, they may be very ill and needing help quickly.

Cancer is the uncontrolled cell division . proto-oncogenes code for positive regulators of the cycle, such as ____. when these genes are mutated, they can become ____ , which cause cancer. ___ code for negative regulators in the cell cycle, such as ____ , p53, and p21. mutations of these genes can also cause cancer.

Answers

Proto-oncogenes code for positive regulators of the cell cycle, such as growth factors and their receptors, as well as intracellular signaling proteins.

These proteins help to promote cell division when necessary, but they are usually tightly regulated to ensure that cells do not divide uncontrollably. When proto-oncogenes are mutated, they can become oncogenes, which are genes that promote uncontrolled cell division and are associated with cancer.

On the other hand, tumor suppressor genes code for negative regulators of the cell cycle, such as the proteins p53 and p21. These proteins can halt the cell cycle or induce cell death (apoptosis) when there is DNA damage or other cellular stress. When tumor suppressor genes are mutated, they can lose their ability to regulate cell division, leading to uncontrolled growth and cancer.

Mutations in both proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes can lead to the development of cancer. Proto-oncogene mutations can cause the cell cycle to become overactive, while tumor suppressor gene mutations can cause the cell cycle to become insufficiently regulated. Therefore, the balance between proto-oncogene activity and tumor suppressor gene activity is critical for the proper regulation of cell division and the prevention of cancer.

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Which of the following best describes the change in Avery's thinking from a social constructivist perspective?

A Avery's equilibrium with respect to the concepts force and work was disrupted, and he re-established it as a direct result of his conversation with Luciana.

B Avery's equilibrium with respect to the concepts force and work was disrupted, and he—individually—re-established it by changing his thinking.

C Avery didn't understand the difference between the concepts force and work and his understanding developed because he imitated Luciana's thinking.

D Avery didn't understand the difference between the concepts force and work, and his understanding evolved as a direct result of the dialogue with Luciana.

Answers

A. Avery's equilibrium with respect to the concepts force and work was disrupted, and he re-established it as a direct result of his conversation with Luciana. In building knowledge, individual constructivism places a strong emphasis on personal experiences.

The focus of social constructivism, in contrast, is on how social interactions affect how knowledge is constructed by learners. Both theories view learning as an active process in which individuals construct their own knowledge rather than merely reflecting an objective, external reality. The focus placed by social constructivism on interpersonal connections and individual constructivism on one another, however, is where they diverge.

Situations are subject to subjective interpretation. They are different, though, in that individual constructivism believes that an individual's experiences are crucial to that subjective knowledge representation. Social constructivism, in contrast, believes that social interaction is essential to creating knowledge. The theory of social constructionism accepts that knowledge evolves as a result of interactions between individuals.

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Why did Enkidu lose some of his powers?

Answers

Answer: Here:

Explanation:

The father advises him to go into the city and take one of the temple harlots, Shamhat, with him to the forest; 1 when she sees Enkidu, she is to offer herself sexually to the wild man. If he submits to her, the trapper says, he will lose his strength and his wildness.

Which of the following is an example of a non controlled substance

Answers

Answer:

one man another volcano and a women

Answer: Non-controlled substances are over-the-counter medications such as Atomoxetine used to treat ADHD, asthma inhalers, insulin for diabetes,  antimicrobials are some examples of non-controlled substances.

Explanation:

Other Questions
What are the main arguments/ points presented in the video about consciousness a physical therapist assistant prepares to instruct a patient in a home exercise program designed to increase lower extremity flexibility. the assistant is somewhat concerned since the patient has difficulty following multi-step instructions and tends to be overly aggressive on prescribed exercises. which type of stretching would be the most appropriate? which segment of the general environment incudes the functions that allow people to shop online at amazon? a. demographic b. sociocultural c. technological d. sustainable physical environment what is proteins involved in eukaryotic gene transcription? Part CNow you will attempt to copy your original triangle using only two of its sides and the included angle:Using point E as the center, draw a circle with a radius equal to the length of , which you calculated in part B.Using point E as the vertex and as one side of the angle, create an angle that is equal to the measure of . Draw ray .Locate the intersection of the ray and the circle, and label the point F.Complete by drawing a polygon through points D, E, and F.Take a screenshot of your results, save it, and insert the image below How do solvent, solute, and solution relate to each other these taxes were aimed at the large numbers of immigrant miners drawn by the gold rush from which country? consider parallelogram vwxy below use the information given in the figure to findx m This picture represents 1/4 of a distance. Which picture represents the whole distance?(don't delete this question.) how many standardized colors are on the j and l color ring? What are the x- and y-intercepts of the function f(x) = 2x + x + 5?O A. y-intercept: 5, x-intercept: 0OB. y-intercept: 8; x-intercept: 0O C. y-intercept: 5; x-intercept: noneOD. y-intercept: 8; x-intercept: none which of the following best explains why there are seldom more than five trophic levels in a food chain? group of answer choices most carnivores function at more than one trophic level. trophic levels above this number contain too many individuals. the ecosystem contains too much biomass. energy is lost from each trophic level. op carnivores are too few in number to prey effectively. you have just downloaded a file. you create a hash of the file and compare it to the hash posted on the website. the two hashes match. what do you know about the file? answer you can prove the source of the file. no one has read the file contents as it was downloaded. your copy is the same as the copy posted on the website. you are the only one able to open the downloaded file. Please, someone help me. This is geometry, 10th grade level. Find the areas listed below, round to the nearesthundredth if necessary. Make sure you use 3.14for pie positive tests in the fermentation tests turned the test media from red to yellow. why does this color change occur? Organizational design is concerned with an organization developingA. the best structures of costs and efficiency that an organization uses to meet goals.B. important decisions that are suggested by employees.C. optimal structures of accountability and responsibility to execute its strategies.D. the most favorable methods of accomplishing both the diversity and synergy plans.E. new MBO goals. What are the National Patient Safety Goals set by AHRQ? In a marathon race of 21 km a runner has been running at a constant speed of 5 by 3 m per second for the last 3 hour. How much distance remain to be run to finish the marathon The attraction of a metallic cation for delocalized electrons. Use this tax table to find how much tax you need to pay on a taxable income of $25,000. If taxable income is over-- But not over-- The tax is:$0 $7,825 10 percent of the amount over $0$7,825 $31,850 $782. 50 plus 15 percent of the amount over 7,825$31,850 $77,100 $4,386. 25 plus 25 percent of the amount over 31,850$77,100 $160,850 $15,698. 75 plus 28 percent of the amount over 77,100$160,850 $349,700 $39,148. 75 plus 33 percent of the amount over 160,850$349,700 no limit $101,469. 25 plus 35 percent of the amount over 349,700