Competing firms whose total expenses are covered by their total revenue end up making zero economic profit.However, zero accounting profit means that a business is running at a loss.
When economic profit is zero,a firm earns the same as if its resources were spent on the next best.If the economic profit is negative, firms have an incentive to exit the market because their resources would be more profitable elsewhere.When economic profits are zero, the firm earns normal profits, where normal profits equal the return that a firm could have earned if it had invested in other markets. If economic profits are greater than zero,the company earns above normal profits. When the business makes zero economic profit, the total revenue earned exactly compensates the business owners for the time and money spent helping them stay in business.Thus,the owner would stay in business while making an accounting profit but still make zero economic profit.
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kalaria manufacturing has sales of $1,248,600 and cost of goods sold of $499,440. beginning inventory is $55,900 and ending inventory is $60,900. what is the length of the inventory period?
The mean value of the inventory kept during a given time period, often a year, is referred to as average inventory.
What is average inventory?
We must know the average daily cost of goods sold (COGS) and average daily inventory in order to determine the duration of the inventory period. By dividing the cost of products sold by the number of days in the period, one may determine the average daily COGS: Cost of goods sold / number of days equals the average daily COGS.
How can we calculate the number of days?
We must first compute the number of days,
Days= 365 days. (assuming a full year)
We can determine the daily COGS average:
Daily COGS on average are $499,440 / 365, or $1,368
How can we calculate average daily inventory?
We may calculate this by dividing the number of days by the average of the beginning and finishing inventory levels:
(Beginning inventory + Ending inventory) / 2 / Days = Average daily inventory
($55,900 + $60,900) / 2 / 365 = $311.51 per day is the average daily inventory.
Calculate the inventory period by dividing the average daily inventory by the average daily COGS.
Average daily inventory / Average daily COGS = inventory period.
Inventory period = $311.51 daily / $1,368 daily 0.228
As a result, the inventory period is around 0.228 days, or 22.8%, long. This outcome can be interpreted as follows: Kalaria Manufacturing rotates its inventory once every 4.4 months, or around 22.8% of the year. It is computed by adding the beginning and ending inventories together, then dividing the result by two.
This provides the typical quantity of inventory retained throughout that time period.
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Real World Case 15–7 (Static) Reporting leases in a statement of cash flows; disclosure note; FedEx [LO 15-8]
"Why does FedEx show operating cash flows for both types of leases, but only financing cash flows for finance leases," your colleague wonders aloud. "We need to draft our lease disclosure by tomorrow morning. " Tossing a sheet of paper in front of you, he moans, "I found this disclosure note to FedEx’s financial statements that promises ‘supplemental cash flow information related to leases,’ but it’s not helping. The department’s draft of our cash flow statement, and the income statement for that matter, don’t specifically break out any lease payments. This being our first time to follow the new lease standard, we need to get it right. And while we’re at it, why do you think they list new leases in connection with cash flows? Did they pay all this cash in addition to incurring lease liabilities for the right-of-use assets?"
Knowing your colleague is a new hire, you want to diplomatically point him in the right direction. So, you pick up the disclosure note:
Note 7 — LEASES (in part)
Supplemental cash flow information related to leases is as follows:
(In millions) Fiscal Year Ended May 31, 2020
Cash paid for amounts included in the measurement of lease liabilities:
Operating cash flows paid for operating leases $ 2,608
Operating cash flows paid for finance leases 14
Financing cash flows paid for finance leases 84
Right-of-use assets obtained in exchange for new operating leases 1,915
Right-of-use assets obtained in exchange for new finance leases 484
Required:
Why does FedEx show operating cash flows for both types of leases, but only financing cash flows for finance leases?
To aid in your explanation, prepare a journal entry that summarizes the cash payments for operating leases during the year.
To aid in your explanation, prepare a journal entry that summarizes the cash payments for finance leases during the year.
Did FedEx pay the amounts indicated in addition to incurring lease liabilities for the right-of-use assets for new leases? Why or why not?
To aid in your explanation, prepare a journal entry that summarizes the acquisition of assets by operating leases during the year
FedEx shows operating cash flows for both types of leases because the operating lease payments are considered operating expenses and FedEx did not pay the amounts indicated in addition to incurring lease liabilities for the right-of-use assets for new leases.
In contrast, finance lease payments are considered debt repayments and are included in financing activities.
For operating leases, FedEx made cash payments of $2,608 million. The journal entry to summarize the cash payments for operating leases during the year is:
Debit: Rent Expense $2,608 million
Credit: Cash $2,608 million
For finance leases, FedEx made cash payments of $14 million for operating activities and $84 million for financing activities. The journal entry to summarize the cash payments for finance leases during the year is:
Debit: Interest Expense $14 million
Debit: Principal Repayment $84 million
Credit: Cash $98 million
The right-of-use assets obtained in exchange for new leases reflect the initial recognition of the lease liabilities and the right-of-use assets. These transactions are non-cash and do not affect the cash flow statement.
The journal entry to summarize the acquisition of assets by operating leases during the year is:
Debit: Right-of-Use Asset $1,915 million
Credit: Lease Liability $1,915 million
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when developing a high-performance workplace, leaders improve performance using technology through trello that:
Trello is a web-based project management application that can be used by leaders to such that collaboration, prioritisation and tracking can be done. Option e is the correct answer.
What are the ways in which Trello can be used?Task management: Trello allows leaders to create and assign tasks to team members. This helps to ensure that everyone is clear about their responsibilities and deadlines, which can lead to increased productivity.
Collaboration: Trello's boards and cards can be shared with team members, making it easy for everyone to see what tasks are in progress and what needs to be done next. This promotes collaboration and helps team members to work together more effectively.
Prioritization: Trello's drag-and-drop interface allows leaders to easily prioritize tasks and move them around as priorities change. This helps to ensure that the most important tasks are completed first, which can lead to increased efficiency and effectiveness.
Tracking progress: Trello's visual layout makes it easy for leaders to track the progress of tasks and projects. They can see at a glance what has been completed, what is currently in progress, and what still needs to be done. This can help leaders to identify areas where performance can be improved and make necessary adjustments.
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The full question is:
When developing a high-performance workplace, leaders improve performance using technology through Trello that:
a. saves time by making repetitive tasks easier to do
b. makes it simple to maintain relationships with people in one's network
c. allows clear visibility of must-do priorities
d. keeps teams on task
e. collaboration, prioritisation and tracking can be done
some search engines offer to elevate a page's position in the organic results after paying a fee. this is known as
Some search engines offer to elevate a page's position in the organic results after paying a fee. This is known as paid inclusion.
Paid inclusion is a type of search engine marketing where websites are added to the search engine's index in exchange for a fee. Paid inclusion is controversial to use, and search engines have become less interested in it over time.
Pay per Click, or PPC, is another name for paid placement. Competitive bidding determines the order of paid placement listings. Unlike listings for paid inclusion, paid placement listings are identified as advertisements or sponsored links and are typically displayed separately from Natural Listings.
Paid inclusion has benefits and disadvantages. A paid inclusion search engine has the benefit of lowering spam while increasing relevancy. However, opponents of paid inclusion claim that it leads to searches returning results that are more based on the financial interests of a website and less on how relevant it is to end users.
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which term refers to the physical land and improvements as well as intangible ownership interests and rights?
Real estate refers to the physical land and improvements, as well as intangible ownership interests and rights.
It includes the buildings, structures, and any other improvements on the land, as well as any ownership rights related to the land, such as mineral rights, water rights, and rights to profits from the land. It also includes the value of any buildings, such as homes and businesses, on the land.
Real estate encompasses both commercial and residential properties, including land, buildings, and homes.
Real estate is an important asset in many countries, as it can generate income from leases and rental income, increase in value over time, and provide tax benefits. Real estate can be held by an individual, business, or government entity.
Real estate is commonly divided into land, improvements (such as buildings, structures, and infrastructure), and other intangibles (such as water rights and mineral rights). Real estate also includes any right of ownership, such as the right to sell, rent, or lease the property, as well as any profits derived from it.
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which of the following is not one of the limitations of the bcg growth share matrix? question 2 options: there are too many factors measuring overall competitive position included, which makes it too complicated. growth rate is only one aspect of industry attractiveness. market share is only one indicator of competitive strength. it is too simplistic. the link between market share and profitability is questionable.
The following statement is not one of the limitations of the BCG growth-share matrix: "There are too many factors measuring overall competitive position included, which makes it too complicated."
The BCG growth-share matrix is a strategic tool used to evaluate a company's product portfolio based on two factors: market growth rate and relative market share. The limitations of the BCG growth-share matrix include the following:
Growth rate is only one aspect of industry attractiveness: The matrix only considers market growth rate as a measure of industry attractiveness, ignoring other important factors such as market size, profitability, and competition.Market share is only one indicator of competitive strength: The matrix assumes that higher market share leads to higher profitability, but this is not always the case. Other factors such as product quality, pricing, and marketing effectiveness can also impact a company's competitive strength.It is too simplistic: The matrix oversimplifies complex business environments, assuming that all products can be categorized as either cash cows, dogs, stars, or question marks.To learn more about BCG matrix visit;
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a company issued a check to replenish its petty cash fund. an analysis of payments from the fund showed these totals: supplies, $50; and delivery expense, $100. this transaction would be recorded in the cash payments journal with a:
This transaction would be recorded in the cash payments journal with a credit to Cash and a debit to both Supplies and Delivery Expense.
When a company issues a check to replenish its petty cash fund, the transaction is recorded in the cash payments journal with a credit to Cash and debits to the accounts that were used to pay for the expenses from the fund.
In this case, the totals for supplies and delivery expense were $50 and $100, respectively, so the transaction would be recorded with a debit of $50 to Supplies and a debit of $100 to Delivery Expense.
This ensures that the company's accounting records accurately reflect the use of funds from the petty cash account.
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a key component of TQM is continuous improvement an ongoing process through which employees strive to eliminate waste, reduce response time, minimize defects, and simplify the design and delivery of products and services to customers (true or false)
True, a key component of Total Quality Management (TQM) is continuous improvement, which is an ongoing process through which employees strive to eliminate waste, reduce response time, minimize defects, and simplify the design and delivery of products and services to customers.
What do you mean by Total Quality Management ?This approach ensures that businesses maintain high-quality standards and consistently work towards enhancing their processes to achieve better results.
Error detection, reduction, or elimination are continual processes in total quality management (TQM). It is applied to improve customer service, optimise supply chain management, and guarantee personnel training.
The goal of total quality management is to "construct and make permanent a climate where employees enhance their ability to supply on-demand goods and services than customers will find particularly valuable."
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calculate the average annual rate of sea-level rise from 15,000 to 10,000 years ago in meters/year. please just enter a number without units!
The average annual rate of sea-level rise from 15,000 to 10,000 years ago in meters/year is 0.0012.
To calculate the average annual rate of sea-level rise from 15,000 to 10,000 years ago in meters/year, the following steps are taken:
Firstly, calculate the rise in sea level by subtracting the sea level at 10,000 years ago from the sea level at 15,000 years ago:
15,000 years ago sea level - 10,000 years ago sea level = 123 meters
Next, calculate the duration of the period by subtracting 10,000 years from 15,000 years: 15,000 years - 10,000 years = 5,000 years
Finally, divide the rise in sea level by the duration of the period: 123 meters / 5,000 years = 0.0246 meters/year = 0.0012 (rounded to 4 decimal places)
Therefore, the average annual rate of sea-level rise from 15,000 to 10,000 years ago in meters/year is 0.0012.
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Managers of corporations need to act in an ethical manner
A. because ethics violations will be punished by the law.
B. because a business must be trusted by investors, customer and the public if it is to succeed.
C. because business managers must answer to a higher authority.
D. because ethical behavior is its own justification.
In the following question, among the given options, The correct option is (B). Managers of corporations need to act in an ethical manner "because a business must be trusted by investors, customers and the public if it is to succeed."
Why do managers of corporations need to act in an ethical manner? The answer is that the managers of corporations need to act in an ethical manner because a business must be trusted by investors, customers, and the public if it is to succeed. Business is about trust, and trust is built through ethical behaviour.
A company that acts ethically is more likely to be trusted by investors, customers, and the public. When a company is trusted, it is more likely to be successful because people will be more willing to do business with it.It is, therefore, essential that managers of corporations act in an ethical manner to ensure that their businesses thrive. If a company is not trusted by investors, customers, and the public, it is unlikely to be successful, and the managers of the company may face serious consequences such as lawsuits, fines, and loss of reputation.
Managers of corporations must, therefore, make ethical decisions and act in an ethical manner to build and maintain trust and ensure the success of their businesses.
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B. Because a business must be trusted by investors, customers, and the public if it is to succeed, is the reason why managers of corporations need to act in an ethical manner.
A corporation's managers must act ethically and responsibly for the following reasons:
Legal reasons:
Managers of corporation must comply with a variety of laws, rules, and regulations. They must ensure that the company's actions are consistent with these laws and regulations.
Managers of corporations must be aware of the rules and regulations in their respective sectors and work to ensure that the business follows them.
Ethical reasons:
Managers of corporations must behave ethically and avoid ethical concerns. They must be honest, fair, and responsible. They must demonstrate respect for their customers, employees, and stakeholders.
Customers' and stakeholders' confidence and trust in a company are critical factors in its success.
Business managers must answer to a higher authority:
Managers of corporations must behave ethically and transparently because they are responsible for the company's performance and results. They must meet the company's goals, but they must also do so while following the company's ethical and moral values.
In other words, managers of corporations are responsible for ensuring that their company operates ethically and responsibly. This is critical for the success of the company.
Ethical behavior is its own justification:
Ethical behavior benefits a corporation in a variety of ways, including increased trust and customer loyalty, improved employee productivity and engagement, and long-term financial success.
Ethical conduct strengthens a corporation's reputation, which is critical to its success. It's a clear reflection of the corporation's values, principles, and vision, and it will help them gain consumer confidence, which is critical to their future success.
Managers of corporations must act ethically for a variety of reasons, including legal requirements, ethical considerations, accountability to a higher authority, and the fact that ethical behavior is critical to a company's long-term success.
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which of the following statements is true? vertical analysis of financial statements is accomplished by preparing common-size statements. in determining whether a company's financial condition is improving or deteriorating over time, horizontal analysis of financial statement data would be more useful than vertical analysis.
The statement provided in question that vertical analysis of financial statements is accomplished by preparing common-size statement is True.
In vertical analysis, each item on the financial statement is expressed as a percentage of a base figure, usually total assets. This provides an easily comparable overview of the financial statement, highlighting any potential trends that may be occurring.
On the other hand, horizontal analysis of financial statement data is a comparison of financial statement amounts over a period of time. This provides an understanding of the company's financial health.
Therefore, when determining whether a company's financial condition is improving or deteriorating over time, horizontal analysis of financial statement data would be more useful than vertical analysis.
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you establish a straddle on wmt using call and put options with a strike price of $140 and same expiration date. the call premium is $3.4 and the put premium is $3.4. what is your profit (per share) if the stock price at the expiration date is $121?
If the stock price is $121 at the expiration date, then you will have a net loss of $1.40 per share. The intrinsic value of the options is equal to the difference between the strike price of $140 and the stock price at the expiration date of $121, or $19. Since the combined cost of the options is greater than the intrinsic value, your profit per share is - $1.40.
This is because the combined cost of the call and put premiums was $6.80, and the intrinsic value of the options will be $0 at that stock price. To calculate the total cost of the straddle, add the cost of the call premium of $3.4 to the cost of the put premium of $3.4, for a total cost of $6.80.
Since the stock price is $121 at expiration, the intrinsic value of the options is equal to $19, which is the difference between the strike price of $140 and the stock price of $121. Subtracting the cost of $6.80 from the intrinsic value of $19 gives you a net loss of $1.40 per share.
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someone decides to put $ 3,400 under their mattress rather than in a bank. the average inflation rate over the next six years is 3.15%. what is the real value of this money after the six year period? round to the nearest dollar.
The real value of the money after the six-year period is $2,776. Rounded to the nearest dollar, it is $2,776.
The inflation rate in the next six years is 3.15%. Therefore, the real value of the money is given by:
[tex]Future value of the money = Present value of the money / (1 + Inflation rate)^{Time[/tex]
Here, Present value of the money = $3,400
Inflation rate = 3.15%
Time = 6 years
Therefore, the future value of the money after six years is given by:
Future value of the money = $3,400 / (1 + 0.0315)⁶ = $2,776.15
Therefore, after the passage of six years, the purchasing power of the money, adjusted for inflation and changes in the general price level, is equivalent to $2,776 in today's dollars.
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which of the statements below accurately reflects the assumptions of the competitive exclusion principle? which of the statements below accurately reflects the assumptions of the competitive exclusion principle? the competitive exclusion principle makes no assumptions about the competitors. the competitive exclusion principle assumes that the competitors have the exact same resource requirements and that environmental conditions remain constant. the competitive exclusion principle assumes that competitors have different resource requirements and that environmental conditions remain constant. the competitive exclusion principle assumes that the competitors have the exact same resource requirements and that environmental conditions may be variable. the competitive exclusion principle assumes that the competitors have resource partitioning and that environmental conditions remain constant.
The following statement accurately reflects the assumptions of the competitive exclusion principle: The competitive exclusion principle assumes that the competitors have the exact same resource requirements and that environmental conditions remain constant.
What is the competitive exclusion principle?The competitive exclusion principle refers to a scientific theory about the relationship between two different species or organisms that are competing for the same resources.
The competitive exclusion principle is one of the most important ecological concepts, as it helps us understand how different species interact in the environment and how these interactions can lead to changes in ecosystems over time.The principle states that two different species that share the same ecological niche or habitat cannot coexist in the same place at the same time. This is because one of the species will inevitably outcompete the other, leading to the extinction of one of the species.
This is due to the fact that the two species have the same resource requirements and cannot survive in the same habitat without a clear separation of resources.The competitive exclusion principle assumes that the competitors have the exact same resource requirements and that environmental conditions remain constant. Therefore, the third option is the correct answer.
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the idea that the quantity of materials tends to decline as the distance from the source of those materials increases is the basic tenant behind:
The idea that the quantity of materials tends to decline as the distance from the source of those materials increases is the basic tenant behind diminishing returns.
The law of diminishing returns is a microeconomic principle that describes the relationship between the marginal output of a variable input and the amount of that input used, holding all other inputs constant at a fixed level. It is a basic rule of production that, as more of a single variable input is added to a fixed quantity of other inputs, the marginal product of the variable input will eventually decrease.
According to the law of diminishing returns, as additional increments of labor and capital are applied to a fixed amount of land, the amount of output per unit of input produced will eventually decrease.
As a result, the production cost per unit of output will eventually increase, resulting in lower profits or higher prices for the consumer, which will cause the demand to decrease.
The law of diminishing returns implies that, for every production process, there exists a point at which additional input will result in diminishing output.
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what would cause the bank statement balance to differ from the depositor's book balance. multiple choice question.
The bank statement balance may differ from the depositor's book balance for several reasons, includes unrecorded deposits or withdrawal, bank fees or interest payments, timing differences between when deposits or withdrawals occur and when they are recorded and errors in the recording of deposits or withdrawals.
Bank statement balance can differ from the depositor's book balance due to the following reasons:Uncleared checksInterest incomeDirect depositsService charges EFTsAll of the above are the reasons for the bank statement balance to differ from the depositor's book balance.A bank statement is a record of financial transactions that have been made by a customer of a bank or other financial institution over a particular period. A bank statement is also known as an account statement or banking record. Bank statements usually contain information about deposits, withdrawals, and transactions, as well as interest earned and service charges incurred.Balance as used in financial accounting refers to the difference between the total credits and total debits in a financial account during a particular period. A balance in accounting is the result of subtracting credits from debits, whereas a balance in a bank account is the amount of money available in the account at the end of the reporting period.Depositor's book balance is the total amount of cash and securities held by a depositor or financial institution. A depositor's book balance differs from the bank statement balance in that the book balance reflects the depositor's records and reconciliations, while the bank statement balance reflects the bank's records and reconciliations.Learn more about Bank statement: https://brainly.com/question/15525383
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kendra is an attorney and owns 60 percent of a law partnership. kendra sells land to the partnership for $50,000 in the current tax year. she bought the land for $100,000 eight years ago when real estate prices were at their peak. how much gain or loss must kendra recognize on the land sale to the partnership? a.$30,000 loss. b.no gain or loss. c.$50,000 loss. d.$50,000 short-term capital loss, limited to $3,000 allowed per year.
The gain or loss that Kendra must recognize on the land sale to the partnership is a Option (c)$50,000 loss.
Gain or loss refers to the change in the value of an asset, investment, or other items that are sold, liquidated, or closed out. For tax purposes, gain or loss is calculated as the difference between an asset's sale price and its purchase price (including any commissions or other expenses incurred during the purchase or sale).
If the sale price is higher than the purchase price, the result is a gain. If the sale price is lower than the purchase price, the result is a loss.
In the current tax year, Kendra sold land to the partnership for $50,000. Kendra purchased the land for $100,000 eight years ago when real estate prices were at their peak. So, the gain or loss must be calculated:
Purchase price: $100,000
Sale price: $50,000
Loss = Purchase price – Sale price
= $100,000 – $50,000
= $50,000
Thus, Kendra must recognize a $50,000 loss on the land sale to the partnership. Therefore, option c) $50,000 loss is the correct answer.
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bargain merchandisers has the following transactions for the month of july. net sales revenue cost of goods sold operating expenses interest revenue calculate gross profit.
The gross profit of the company Bargain Merchandisers' gross profit for the month of July is $109,000.
What is the meaning of Gross Profit?Gross profit is the revenue earned by a company minus the direct costs associated with producing and selling its products or services. In other words, it is the amount of money that a company has left over from its sales after deducting the cost of goods sold (COGS). Gross profit is a key financial metric because it indicates how efficiently a company is using its resources to generate revenue. It can also help companies determine whether their pricing strategy is effective and if they are able to cover their overhead expenses.
Gross Profit = Net Sales Revenue - Cost of Goods Sold
Gross Profit = $419,000 - $310,000
Gross Profit = $109,000.
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a genuine business opportunity is described by each of the following characteristics except: group of answer choices all of the above the ability to sell the product at high enough of a price to a sufficient number of customers. an acceptable profit opportunity. distinctive competence in marketing effective demand for the product or service
A genuine business opportunity does not include "all of the above" as a valid choice.
A genuine business opportunity includes the ability to sell the product at a high enough price to a sufficient number of customers, an acceptable profit opportunity, distinctive competence in marketing, and effective demand for the product or service.
To identify a genuine business opportunity, an entrepreneur needs to determine the feasibility of selling their product at the price point that is acceptable for both the customer and the seller, the expertise of the seller in marketing the product, and the customer's demand for the product or service.
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All the payroll information needed to prepare payroll and tax reports is found on
(A) Form W-4 and the employee earnings record
(B) Form W-4 and the payroll register
(C) the payroll register and the employee earnings record
(D) Form W-4.
(p. 378)
(C). The payroll information needed is found on both the payroll register and the employee earnings record. Form W-4 provides withholding allowance info, but it is not enough on its own.
Accurate record-keeping of employee wages and tax withholdings is crucial for compliance with tax laws and regulations. The payroll register contains details such as employee names, hours worked, gross pay, and deductions for taxes and benefits. This information helps to calculate net pay for each employee. On the other hand, the employee earnings record summarizes the year-to-date earnings, deductions, and taxes withheld for each employee. The record is used to prepare tax reports and forms such as Form W-2. While Form W-4 provides crucial information on employees' tax withholding allowances, it is not enough for payroll and tax reporting purposes. Therefore, maintaining both the payroll register and employee earnings record is necessary for accurate payroll processing and tax reporting.
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the pmo is conducting a meeting and a fellow project manager is reporting that the project is on schedule and under budget. you discover from the project's team members that the project is behind schedule by four weeks and is over budget. what should you do? seleccione una: a. notify senior management b. review with the project manager how this status was produced c. ask the pmo to investigate the project status d. report the project manager to pmi(r)
If you discover from the project's team members that the project is behind schedule is over budget, you should: review with the project manager how this status was produced. (option B)
Before taking any further action, it is important to get a better understanding of how the project manager produced the status report that indicated the project was on schedule and under budget.
There could be a number of reasons why the status report does not accurately reflect the current state of the project, such as miscommunication, incorrect data, or an overly optimistic outlook.
By reviewing the situation with the project manager, you can gather more information and potentially identify the root cause of the discrepancy between the reported status and the actual status of the project. From there, you can work with the project manager to develop a more accurate status report and develop a plan to get the project back on track.
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sam and tracy are running their project in planning sam and nikkis wedding. communication is a big issue with all the stakeholders and their geographical locations. of the following, which is an input they will use in the manage communications process? seleccione una: a. project management plan b. communications management plan c. feedback d. power interest grid
The input that "Sam and Tracy will use in the manage communications process is the Communications Management Plan." is the Communications Management Plan. This includes the communications process. The correct option is B.
What is the Communication process?The communications process is defined as the sequence of events that takes place when a message is sent, such as: Initiation Transmission, Reception Understanding, Response Feedback
To ensure effective communication, it is important to understand each component of the communications process. In this case, Sam and Tracy are struggling with communication issues because of geographical differences. As a result, they need a Communications Management Plan to help them deal with communication issues.
The Communications Management Plan includes the communications process, such as what communication media and language to use, how often to communicate, and to whom to communicate.
Thus, the answer is option B.
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this month, the local widget factory produced 100 widgets. the total variable cost of production was $500 and the average total cost of production was $8. what is the average fixed cost?
The average fixed production cost is $3.
To calculate the average fixed cost of production, we need to subtract the variable cost from the total cost and then divide the result by the number of units produced. The formula for average fixed cost is:
Average Fixed Cost = (Total Cost - Total Variable Cost) / Quantity
In this case, the total variable cost of production was $500, and the average total cost of production was $8. We also know that 100 widgets were produced. Therefore, we can calculate the total cost of production as follows:
⇒ Total Cost = Average Total Cost x Quantity
⇒ Total Cost = $8 x 100
⇒ Total Cost = $800
Now we can use the formula above to calculate the average fixed cost:
⇒ Average Fixed Cost = (Total Cost - Total Variable Cost) / Quantity
⇒ Average Fixed Cost = ($800 - $500) / 100
⇒ Average Fixed Cost = $3
Therefore, the average fixed cost of production is $3.
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Assume that a company’s planning budget is based on 2,000 units and it actually produced and sold 2,500 units. Its planning budget is based on the assumption that 60% of its administrative expenses are fixed and the remainder is variable. If the planning budget includes $12,000 of fixed administrative expenses and the company’s actual total administrative expense for the period is $19,000, then what is the amount of the administrative expense spending variance?
Multiple Choice
$3,000 favorable
$2,000 unfavorable
$5,000 unfavorable
$5,000 favorable
First, we need to determine the expected amount of variable administrative expenses based on the planning budget: the correct answer is $3,000 unfavorable. So the correct option is A.
Fixed administrative expenses = $12,000
Variable administrative expenses = 40% x Total administrative expenses = 40% x ($12,000 + Variable expenses)
Simplifying, we get: Variable administrative expenses = 0.4 x ($12,000 + Variable expenses)
Solving for Variable administrative expenses, we get: Variable administrative expenses = $8,000
Next, we can calculate the flexible budget for administrative expenses based on the actual level of production (2,500 units):
Fixed administrative expenses = $12,000
Variable administrative expenses = ($8,000 / 2,000 units) x 2,500 units = $10,000
Total administrative expenses = $12,000 + $10,000 = $22,000
Finally, we can calculate the administrative expense spending variance as the difference between the actual and flexible budget amounts:
Administrative expense spending variance = Actual administrative expenses - Flexible budget administrative expenses
Administrative expense spending variance = $19,000 - $22,000
Administrative expense spending variance = -$3,000 (unfavorable)
Therefore, the correct answer is $3,000 unfavorable.
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in a purely competitive industry, at the profit-maximizing or loss-minimizing level of output, marginal is equal to .
In a perfectly competitive market, firms will increase the quantity produced until their marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
This is because when marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost, the difference represents profit to be earned (and firms are assumed to be “profit-maximizing” and, when dealing with perfect competition, “price-takers”). When marginal revenue is less than marginal cost, the difference represents a loss that the firm is incurring, and the firm will decrease the quantity produced or shut down if the loss is greater than the fixed cost of production.
What is marginal revenue?Marginal revenue is the increase in revenue that results from the sale of one additional unit of output. It is the revenue that a company can generate for each additional unit sold.
Marginal revenue is a fundamental tool for economic decision making within a firm’s setting, together with marginal cost to be considered. In a perfectly competitive market, the incremental revenue generated by selling an additional unit of a good is equal to the price the firm is able to charge the buyer of the good.
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ccording to the video, the leading firms from emerging markets that are fast becoming key contenders in world markets are called . a new global challengers b chaebols c grupos
According to the video, the leading firms from emerging markets that are fast becoming key contenders in world markets are called new global challengers.
What are Emerging markets?Emerging markets are countries that have some characteristics of a developed market but do not meet the requirements to be classified as a developed market. This includes countries that may become developed markets in the future or were in the past.
Emerging markets generally do not have the level of market efficiency and strict standards for accounting and securities regulations to be classified as developed markets. Emerging markets are classified according to a set of criteria that includes low per capita income, weak institutional infrastructure, and undeveloped financial markets.
Generally, emerging markets are characterized by their large populations, rapid urbanization, and growing middle class. Some examples of emerging markets include Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. Therefore, the leading firms from emerging markets that are fast becoming key contenders in world markets are called new global challengers.
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what is a critical part of the decision-making process when you are in a situation where the ambiguity is a set of distinct set of outcomes?
A critical part of the decision-making process when you are in a situation where ambiguity is a set of distinct outcomes is to identify the possible outcomes and evaluate the probability of each one.
Decision-making refers to the cognitive process of considering and choosing alternatives. A decision-making process includes a series of steps, including:
1. Identifying the problem
2. Defining objectives
3. Gathering information
4. Identifying options
5. Evaluating alternatives
6. Making a decision
7. Implementing the decision
8. Monitoring the result
A critical part of the decision-making process when you are in a situation where ambiguity is a set of distinct outcomes is to identify the possible outcomes and evaluate the probability of each one. By doing so, one can select the option that has the highest likelihood of achieving the desired outcome. This process can involve gathering additional information, conducting research, or consulting with experts in the relevant field. Therefore, the correct option is to identify the possible outcomes and evaluate the probability of each one.
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which of the following is the main cause of the persistent inflation that we have experienced in the united states? supply-side inflationary factors demand-side inflationary factors a combination of supply- and demand-side inflationary factors supply-side secularity factors
The major reason of the sustained rise in American prices has been supply-side inflationary forces. Hence the proper answer is (d).
The aggregate demand curve moves to the right as investors purchase that much means of production as interest rates fall.
A rise in the amount of cash in circulating should lead the curve for aggregate demand to move to the right.
In order for supply-side inflation to happen there in long term, the long-run average supply curve must move to the left.
If the government wished to reduce the unemployment rate, this could pursue an aggressive fiscal strategy.
Fiscal policy is the competence for both the executive and legislative parts of the federal government.
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"Complete question"
Which of the following is the main cause of the persistent inflation that we have experienced in the United States?
A)Demand-side inflationary factors.
B) Supply-side inflationary factors.
C)A combination of supply- and demand-side inflationary factors.
D)Supply-side secularity factors.
if the cumulative lead time is eight weeks, for a project to be feasible the mps planning horizon must be:
If the cumulative lead time is eight weeks, for a project to be feasible, the MPS (Master Production Schedule) planning horizon must be eight weeks as well.
What is the MPS?
MPS (Master Production Schedule) is a planning tool that allows manufacturers to schedule production activities according to customer orders, sales forecasts, and other demand signals. It is a schedule of how many products a company intends to produce within a specific period.
The MPS drives the production process by deciding which products to manufacture, how many to produce, and when to produce them. This schedule, when coupled with the Bill of Materials (BOM), forms the backbone of the Material Requirements Planning (MRP) system.
The BOM specifies what items are required to produce a product and how much of each material is required. The MRP system uses the MPS to plan material needs and calculate the required raw material and production resources.
Why is the MPS planning horizon important?
The MPS planning horizon is an essential component of the planning process since it aids in determining the length of time that a company must plan to produce enough product to fulfill demand.
For example, if the cumulative lead time is eight weeks, the MPS planning horizon should also be eight weeks, meaning that the schedule should be created for the next eight weeks, including the current week.
By doing so, a manufacturer can ensure that it can meet demand while avoiding stock-outs or excess inventory.
The planning horizon helps a business to manage its resources, avoid disruptions in the production cycle, and ensure that customer demands are met.
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when government decides to increase taxes in order to fight an inflationary gap, this is: a an example of an automatic stabilizer. b an example of monetary policy. c most likely to increase the size of the budget deficit. d likely to dampen the effects of inflation, but will not lead to a correction. e an example of discretionary fiscal policy.
An example of discretionary fiscal policy is when the government decides to increase taxes to fight an inflationary gap. (E)
Increasing taxes helps to reduce inflation by reducing spending, and the increased revenue generated can be used to pay down debt or finance government programs.
However, this policy is likely to increase the size of the budget deficit because it reduces the amount of money that people have available to spend and the revenue generated by the tax increase may not fully offset the spending cuts.
The correct answer is an example of discretionary fiscal policy.(E)
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