Answer:
The first course of action is to have your blood drawn to check for any viruses/diseases. As well as telling your charge nurse, manager, or house supervisor. You notify your employee health department.
Explanation:
If a nurse accidentally sticks herself while giving a patient an IM injection, the first action of the nurse would be to scrub the area vigorously for 5 minutes with soap and water. The correct option is D.
Who is a nurse?A post-acute registered nurse provides patients with direct care the majority of the time. They oversee safety, oversee patients' everyday activities, and give basic care.
Helping people with a disability and/or chronic illness achieve and retain their maximal function is the aim of rehabilitation nursing. In a variety of settings, including long-term care facilities, nursing homes, jails, homes, and other places, a registered nurse (RN) offers direct patient care.
Therefore, the correct option is D. Scrub the area vigorously for 5 minutes with soap and water.
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
A) Report the incident to the supervisor/charge nurse.
B) Cleanse the area with Betadine.
C) Irrigate the area with sterile water.
D) Scrub the area vigorously for 5 minutes with soap and water.
Potency is the relationship between the ____ of a drug and the ________. It refers to the drug's strength. A drug is considered potent when a _____ amount of the drug achieves the intended effect. ______ is the ability of a drug to produce the desired therapeutic effect.
Answer:
amount effect small efficacy
Explanation:
How does car donation help veterans? How can a veteran get a donated car?
Answer:
1. It can help them if they are need of a car or vehicle, so they could go places or doing things that they may need to do.
2. Veterans can get a donated car by a veterans charity, you could call a number to donate the call.
Explanation:
I hope it helps! Have a great day!
pan~
When drugs are swallowed, they pass through the stomach and are absorbed in what part of the body?
Answer:
Swallowing pills, capsules, powders, or liquids, when it is swallowed, the drugs pass through the stomach and are absorbed primarily through the small intestine.
Explanation:
A rescuer arrives at the side of an adult victim and suspects an opioid associated life-threatening emergency The victim is unresponsive and not breathing normally but has a pulse What is the next action the rescuer should take
The action that is expected of the rescurer is for them to perform a CPR on the victim having notice the pulse.
What is CPR?CPR is the acrymonym for Cardiopulmonary resuscitation, it is a method used to revive a victim that is about to drawn back to life.
In summary, CPR is carried out by compressing the chest.
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A 20-year-old man who smokes comes to your office for a new patient examination. The patient reports not having been to the dentist since he was about 10 years old. He claims to brush but not floss his teeth because his gums bleed when he flosses. He complains that a few of his teeth have recently become increasingly sensitive. After a brief initial extraoral and intraoral examination, the dentist orders a full mouth series of radiographs in order to proceed with the examination. While you are preparing the necessary films and holders, the patient asks you why you have to take so many radiographs. What are some of the reasons you can give him?
They allow your me to look past the tissue of your mouth, such as your gums, and into the deeper areas of your teeth and jaw bone. That way I can look for signs of oral health issues that may be invisible with a visual examination alone.
Au revoir mon amour <3
What are your thoughts on the number of different health care providers that leia has seen (including the fact that she was never able to see her actual pediatrician dr. amidala)? what are some of the advantages associated with better "continuity of care"?
There would be lack of organised medical history of the patient leading to lack of continuity of care. The advantage of "continuity of care" is promotion of health and recovery of patients.
What is continuity of care?Continuity of care is a health approach that ensures that the health professionals render cooperative care services to the patient in such a way that a high quality medical care is achieved.
The patients should be directed to health care providers that would specifically handle their various health situations and not being tosses around like Leia.
The importance of continuity of care include the following:
It has positive impacts on the patient's health outcomeIt reduces death ratesIt leads to patients being more likely to follow medical advice and utilize preventative care.Therefore the importance of continuity of care is that it promotes the health and recovery of patients.
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A construction worker complains of intense pain after a bag of dry powder was spilled on his arm. The EMT should:
Answer: Rinse the arm thoroughly for 20-30 minutes
Explanation:
A lot of dry powders in construction contain lye and other harmful components.
What treatment site is usually recommended by a clinician when clients present a risk of harming themselves or others
Answer:
Psychiatric hospital
Explanation:
In what year did nicotine containing substances, including tobacco, become officially regulated by the FDA
Prevention of atherosclerosis includes the TLC diet. As a part of this diet, our highest calorie intake comes from:
In conclusion, as a part of TLC diet, our highest calorie intake comes from carbohydrates, which are macronutrients.
What are carbohydrates?Carbohydrates are macronutrients like proteins and fats, which are fundamental and must be ingested in the diet.
Carbohydrates contain approximately 4 kcal (calories) per each consumed gram and it is required 7 gr per kilogram.
In conclusion, as a part of the TLC diet, the highest calorie intake comes from carbohydrates, which are macronutrients.
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22 . A term baby was vigorous at birth but receives CPAP for 3 minutes after birth for grunting respirations. The baby is now 15 minutes old, breathing comfortably in room air, and bonding with their mother. The team plans for the baby to room-in with their mother. What immediate decision needs to be made regarding post-resuscitation care
The immediate decision needs to be made regarding post-resuscitation care and that stable NBs should remain with their mothers and be transported to the accommodation.
When the newborn's clinical conditions are satisfactoryWhen the newborn's clinical conditions are satisfactory, the following procedures should be followed:
Be carried out in sequence:
Umbilical cord ligation. Prevention of gonococcal ophthalmia using the Credé method.Anthropometry. Prevention of bleeding due to vitamin K deficiency. Detection of maternal-fetal blood incompatibility. Carrying out serology for syphilis and HIV. Identification of the RB.With this information, we can conclude that the immediate decision needs to be made regarding post-resuscitation care and that stable NBs should remain with their mothers and be transported to the accommodation.
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According to Mattson (2015), __________ refers to a process of bolstering cellular resilience that may account for the health benefits of consuming fruits and vegetables.
Answer:
hormesis
Explanation:
hormesis is the process of bolstering cellular resilience and a growing body of research indicates that it accounts for the health benefits of consuming veggies and fruits
15- Cells can signal to each other and interpret the signals they receive from other cells and the environment. Signals are most often chemicals.
True
False
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Which of the following will most likely be needed to turn OFF a phosphorylation cascade in a cell's cytosol after it has been used?
Three of the five leading causes of death from communicable diseases globally are: A. Measles, TB B. Measles, rubella, tetanus C. Lower respiratory infections, TB, HIV D. Measles, diphtheria, malaria
Three of the five leading causes of death from communicable diseases globally are the Lower respiratory infections, TB, HIV. That is option C.
The top global leading causes of death in communicable diseasesCommunicable diseases are those diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another through close contact or transfer of body fluids from an infected individual.
According to World Health Organizations, the five communicable diseases that has caused highest death rates are :
Lower respiratory infections: This has caused about 3.4 million deaths. HIV/AIDS: This has caused about 2.6 million deaths. Diarrheal diseases: this has caused about 1.8 million deaths. Tuberculosis(TB): This has caused about 1.6 million deaths. and Malaria: This has caused about 1.1 million deaths.Therefore, three of the five leading causes of death from communicable diseases globally are the Lower respiratory infections, TB, HIV.
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While there is no consensus concerning the best type of practice schedule to use, research does indicate that distributed practice leads to immediate improvement when compared to ____ practice schedules.
Distributed practice leads to improvement when compared to masses practice schedules for learning motor skills.
What is a motor skills?It should be noted that motor skills simply means the function that has to do with specific movement of the body's muscle to perform a task.
In this case, distributed practice leads to improvement when compared to masses practice schedules for learning motor skills.
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5)An 11-month old patient presented for emergency surgery to repair a severely broken arm after falling from a third story window. What qualifying circumstance code(s) may be reported in addition to the anesthesia code?
Explanation:
What physical status modifier best describes a patient who has a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life?
P4
Response Feedback:
Rationale: Review the Anesthesia Guidelines in the CPT® codebook to determine that the Physical Status modifier P4 is the correct choice. Note: Medicare does not recognize physical status modifiers for additional payment.
What modifier is used for medically-directed CRNA services?
QX
Response Feedback:
Rationale: In the HCPCS Level II codebook look for where the modifiers are listed and refer to modifier QX. QX is the correct modifier for CRNA services when medically directed by a physician.
What is the anesthesia code for a cast application to the wrist?
01860
Response Feedback:
Rationale: In the CPT® Index for Anesthesia/Cast Application/Forearm, Wrist and Hand which directs you to 01860. Verify code selection in the numeric section.
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What physical status modifier best describes a patient who has a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life?
Tap card to see definition
P4
Response Feedback:
Rationale: Review the Anesthesia Guidelines in the CPT® codebook to determine that the Physical Status modifier P4 is the correct choice. Note: Medicare does not recognize physical status modifiers for additional payment.
Tap again to see term
What modifier is used for medically-directed CRNA services?
Tap card to see definition
QX
Response Feedback:
Rationale: In the HCPCS Level II codebook look for where the modifiers are listed and refer to modifier QX. QX is the correct modifier for CRNA services when medically directed by a physician.
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What physical status modifier best describes a patient who has a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life?
P4
Response Feedback:
Rationale: Review the Anesthesia Guidelines in the CPT® codebook to determine that the Physical Status modifier P4 is the correct choice. Note: Medicare does not recognize physical status modifiers for additional payment.
What modifier is used for medically-directed CRNA services?
QX
Response Feedback:
Rationale: In the HCPCS Level II codebook look for where the modifiers are listed and refer to modifier QX. QX is the correct modifier for CRNA services when medically directed by a physician.
What is the anesthesia code for a cast application to the wrist?
01860
Response Feedback:
Rationale: In the CPT® Index for Anesthesia/Cast Application/Forearm, Wrist and Hand which directs you to 01860. Verify code selection in the numeric section.
A 22 year-old patient who has severe medical problems is placed under general anesthesia by an anesthetist for a service not usually requiring anesthesia. What modifier would be appended to the service?
23
Response Feedback:
Rationale: In the CPT® codebook go to Appendix A - Modifiers. Review the modifiers to determine that modifier 23 is reported to indicate a procedure not usually requiring anesthesia (either none or local) but due to unusual circumstances general anesthesia is necessary.
A client who experienced a myocardial infarction 2 weeks ago reports awakening early, loss of appetite, difficulty sitting still or concentrating, and loss of interest in personal hobbies. What mental health disorder do these manifestations represent
Please give me the answer
Answer:
I think the answer is true.(?)
If a health professional determines that your roommate is suffering from bulimia nervosa, her treatment will likely involve
Answer:
Cognitive behavior therapy
client recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis, who self-administers beta-1a interferon, reports feeling increasingly depressed. which action should be
Notifying the provider of these symptoms is the best thing to be done when feeling increasingly depressed after drug usage.
What is Diagnosis?This involves recognizing a disease through the signs and symptoms exhibited by the individual.
In a case where a patient self-administers a drug and has unpleasant symptoms, it is best to notify the provider which will explain if it's normal or abnormal to decide if a drug will be discontinued and alternatives given.
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The renal corpuscle consists of a capillary called the ____________ and a capsule of epithelial cells.
Answer:
the glomerulus
Explanation:
atton has been suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder for several years, and none of his medications have helped. Patton is ready to try anything and asks his doctor for another solution. Which treatment is his doctor likely to recommend
Answer:
Deep Brain Stimulation
Explanation:
bc i said so :)
The treatment likely recommended to Atton who has been suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder is deep brain stimulation.
What is obsessive-compulsive disorder?Obsessive-compulsive disorder is a type of mental cognitive disorder characterized by personality dissociation.
Deep Brain Stimulation is used to treat this type of mental disorder (obsessive-compulsive disorder).it has been shown that deep brain stimulation can drastically reduce symptoms associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder.
In conclusion, the treatment likely recommended to Atton who has been suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder is deep brain stimulation.
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A vaginal examination reveals that a client's cervix is 90% effaced and dilated to 6 cm. The fetus's head is at station 0, and the fetus is in a right occiput anterior position. The contractions are occurring every 3 to 4 minutes, are lasting 60 seconds, and are of moderate intensity. Which description is appropriate to use when reporting on the client's condition
Answer:
Midway through the first stage of labor
Explanation:
What is the role of Schwann cells in neural communication?
Select one:
A. Thermal insulation of neuronal axons
B. Insulate the neurons from contact with other cells
C. Protect the neuronal soma from trauma
D. Limit the speed of the action potential
E. Enhance the speed of the action potential
Answer:
E
Explanation:
Schwann cells are glial cells for neurons in the PNS (peripheral nervous system). They produce myelin sheaths onto the axons of those neurons allowing action potentials to transmit down the axon faster through saltatory conduction (jumping from Node of Ranvier to Node of Ranvier).
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__________ failure involves a progressive and irreversible loss of kidney structures, leading to a progressive loss of renal function. __________ failure is a sudden loss of kidney function.
Answer:
Chronic renal; acute renal
Explanation:
13. Describe all of the hormonal influences on skeletal growth and development.
Answer:
The growth hormone/IGF-1 system stimulates both bone-resorbing and bone-forming cells, but bone formation is the dominant effect, resulting in increased bone mass. Thyroid hormones boost the energy production of all cells in the body, including bone cells.
Heavy drinking during pregnancy can cause ________ Group of answer choices fetal alcohol syndrome. incomplete fusion of the spinal canal in the child. aggressiveness and withdrawal in the child. premature birth and higher rates of still-births.
Answer:
agreessivness and withdraw in the child.
Explanation:
The nurse is providing care to an infant diagnosed with down syndrome. which parental statement related to the infants growth indicates the need for further education
In the growth of the baby with down syndrome, there is a need for more education when this baby does not have motor and speech development.
What care should I take with babies with down syndrome?Many children with Down Syndrome (DS) have difficulties in school learning and this happens mainly because of Intellectual Disability (ID) which is a characteristic of the syndrome. People with ID have difficulties in
MemorizationLogical reasoningLanguageMotor skillsSocialization and Autonomy.Therefore, they need special attention and support in the learning process.
With this information, we can conclude that in the growth of the baby with down syndrome, there is a need for more education when this baby does not have motor and speech development.
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Which ocean resources are second in economic value to oil?
manganese nodules
sand and gravel
evaporative salts
Answer:
Sand and gravel are second in economic value to oil. :)