Answer:
25% of the offspring, or 45 (B).
Explanation:
If they are heterozygous, they are Ll and Ll. Put it in a Punnet square, the l and l match up in 1/4 squares to make 25% of the total flies.
Answer:
45
Explanation
because 25% of the flies eat on it
I need help, thx lads
i did'nt understod ur question
What’s happening when the enzyme is there and when it isnt
Answer:
???????????
Explanation:
What is the strongest evidence to support the theory of evolution?
Perhaps the strongest fossil evidence for evolution is the continuity of the fossil record from prehistoric to modern times.
The Devonian, the age of the fishes, or human fossils amid dinosaur remains are not things we discover anyplace on Earth. The five assumptions that Darwin combined are evolution, or common descent, gradualism, species diversity, and natural selection. A theory is a reason for how a natural phenomena works that has been put to the test extensively through observations and tests meant to prove the correctness of the explanation. In this situation, evolution may be viewed as a theory as well as reality. It cannot be disputed that throughout Earth's history, living things have changed or evolved.
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need help asap
question nine
- 20 points
Answer:
population is decreasing
Explanation:
which describes the life cycle of a plant that has an alternation of generations a diploid sporophyte stage and diploid gametophyte stage
The life cycle of a plant that has an alternation of generations is (B) a diploid sporophyte stage and haploid gametophyte stage.
Plants alternate among haploid and diploid tiers (or generations) of existence. The gametophyte is the haploid level, and the sporophyte is the diploid level. These tiers are each kinds of the time period ploidy that's a notable technological know-how phrase that describes the quantity of units of chromosomes in a cell. Alternation of generations approach that flowers trade among one of a kind existence tiers, or generations, of their existence cycle; a haploid level known as gametophyte and a diploid level known as sporophyte.
Thus, the correct option is B i.e., a diploid sporophyte stage and haploid gametophyte stage.
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Complete question:
Which describes the life cycle of a plant that has an alternation of generations?
(A) a diploid sporophyte stage and diploid gametophyte stage
(B) a diploid sporophyte stage and haploid gametophyte stage
(C) a haploid sporophyte stage and diploid gametophyte stage
(D) a haploid sporophyte stage and haploid gametophyte stage
Two balloons are rubbed with fur, which creates an excess of electrons on the balloons. If the balloons are hung from flexible wires from a shared point overhead, what will happen to the balloons?
A.
They will repel one another and the angle between them will be proportional to the charge on each.
B.
They will attract one another and sustain that attraction until the charges have redistributed.
C.
They will swing like a pendulum, with the period based on the magnitude of the transferred charge.
D.
They will join at a single point where the excess charge has collected and then they will repel one another.
Cell volume (and therefore cell function) in most cells is dependent upon careful regulation of
A) permeability of cell membranes.
B) blood pressure.
C) volume of extracellular fluid.
D) resting membrane potential.
E) osmolarity of extracellular fluid.
In most cells, careful management of cell volume (and hence cell function)
How do cells form?
Through a process known as the cell cycle, new cells are generated from existing cells. A cell has the ability to duplicate itself and give rise to two additional daughter cells. Every cell cycle requires the performance of two key functions. Cells must first create a perfect replica of their DNA. membrane potential during rest.
Where do cells develop?
Depending on the area of the body, it can take a cell from the moment it is formed in the base layer of skin until it is lost from the surface for around a month.
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In most cells, careful management of cell volume (and hence cell function)
How do cells form?
Through a process known as the cell cycle, new cells are generated from existing cells. A cell has the ability to duplicate itself and give rise to two additional daughter cells. Every cell cycle requires the performance of two key functions. Cells must first create a perfect replica of their DNA. membrane potential during rest.
Where do cells develop?
Depending on the area of the body, it can take a cell from the moment it is formed in the base layer of skin until it is lost from the surface for around a month.
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What should be done first in neonatal resuscitation?
In neonatal resuscitation firstly the newborn should be placed under a radiant heat source to offer warmth.
The baby should then be dried off, their airway should be cleared with a bulb syringe or suction catheter if necessary, and their breathing should be stimulated.
Clear the airway by suctioning the mouth first, followed by the nose, with a bulb syringe or suction catheter if the baby is energetic at birth (strong respiratory effort, such as crying, good muscular tone, heart rate > 100 bpm). If bradycardia develops when sucking, cease sucking and reassess the heart rate. Suctioning for intubation is not necessary.
The newborn needs tracheal suctioning if they are not active (decreased breathing, depressed muscle tone, and heart rate 100 bpm). Using a laryngoscope and a suction catheter under direct eyesight, first clean the mouth and posterior pharynx before inserting the endotracheal tube into the trachea. Connect an apparatus for suction to the endotracheal tube. As the tube is gently withdrawn, use suction. Repeat as necessary until the meconium is recovered or the heart rate drops down below 60 beats per minute, at which point immediate resuscitation is required. Give a soft yet forceful stimulation; touch the back and softly flick the soles.
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Select all that apply.
Animals return water to the atmosphere through:
perspiration
respiration
evaporation
transpiration
elimination
Answer:
Respiration
Explanation:
Respiration process in animal release water vapour as we breathe out
Answer:
Elimination
Perspiration
Respiration
Explanation:
Sorry this is late but it's right.
Explain the principle of uniformitarianism.
Explanation:
Uniformitarianism, also known as the Doctrine of Uniformity or the Uniformitarian Principle, is the assumption that the same natural laws and processes that operate in our present-day scientific observations have always operated in the universe in the past and apply everywhere in the universe.
One of its alleles specifies white fur color. A second allele
specifies brown fur color. Mice also are seen as white and brown patches. You want to determine
whether the relationship between the alleles is simple dominance (and if so which color is dominant)
incomplete or co-dominance. What sorts of genetic crosses would give you the answer? On what types
of observations would you base your answers? Name the type of inheritance.
Answer:
I believe it would be co-dominance.
Explanation:
Codominance is a relationship between two versions of a gene. Individuals receive one version of a gene from each parent. In codominance, however, neither allele is recessive and the phenotypes of both alleles are expressed. Which, often times, will lead to patches or mixed colors.
A genetic mutations involving a single base causes an error that affects the sequence of the next 500 amino acids in a protein. Which type of mutation could have produced this type of error in the protein
The correct answer is C; Frame-shift, Because protein-encoding DNA is split into three-base codons, insertions and deletions can change a gene's message to the point where it no longer makes sense. These modifications are known as reading frame offsets.
For example, consider the phrase: "The fat cat sat". Each letter denotes a codon. If we remove the initial letter and evaluate the statement in the same way, it makes no sense.
A similar mistake happens at the molecular level in frame-shift, leading the codons to be processed erroneously. This frequently results in the production of worthless proteins.
An insertion or deletion involving a number of base pairs that is not a multiple of three that disrupts the triplet reading frame of a DNA sequence.
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Full Question ;
A genetic mutation involving a single base causes an error that affects the sequence of the next 500 amino acids in a protein. Which type of mutation could have produced this type of error in the protein?
A)Silent
B)Nonsensse
C)frame-shift
Is an irony on the discrepancy between the expected result and actual result?
Yes, the irony is the discrepancy between the expected result and the actual result.
The presence of a contradiction between what is stated and what is meant is the foundation for the growth of irony.
Irony can be broken down into three categories:
1. A piece of writing has linguistic irony if the author says one thing but really means something else.
2. The term "dramatic irony" refers to a situation in which the audience is aware of something or learns to realize something that a character in the literature is unaware of.
3. A scenario might be said to have dramatic irony when there is a discrepancy between the expected result and the actual results.
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What is Turgor pressure?
A.the pressure a solution puts on cells it contains
B.the pressure put on the cell wall by the cell membrane
C.the pressure put on the nucleus by the cytoplasm
Please select the word from the list that best fits the definition
A calendar that depicts when different organisms existed on Earth
A. geologic time scale
B. fossils
C. fossil age
Answer:
A. geologic time scaleExplanation:
As,
The geologic time scale is a system of chronological dating that classifies geological strata in time. It is used by geologists, paleontologists, and other Earth scientists to describe the timing and relationships of events in geologic history.
b. Discuss TWO differences between gametogenesis in male humans and gametogenesis in female humans.
Answer:
There are several differences between gametogenesis in male humans and gametogenesis in female humans. Here are two examples:
1. Location: Gametogenesis, or the production of gametes (sex cells), occurs in different locations in males and females. In males, gametogenesis occurs in the testes, which are located outside the body in the scrotum. In females, gametogenesis occurs in the ovaries, which are located inside the pelvis.
2, Quantity: Males and females also produce different quantities of gametes. Males produce millions of sperm cells each day, while females produce only a limited number of eggs. The production of eggs, or ova, is a slow process that occurs over a woman's lifetime, while the production of sperm is a continuous process that occurs throughout a man's life.
Overall, these differences reflect the unique reproductive roles and functions of males and females in sexual reproduction.
Emphysema is COPD that may lead to which of the following? Check all that apply. O Alveolar wall breakdown O Reduced respiratory membrane surface area and gas exchange O Increased vital capacity O Hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and respiratory acidosis O Polycythemia Cor pulmonale
Emphysema is a severe form of COPD that can lead to several serious complications, such as alveolar wall breakdown, reduced respiratory membrane surface area and gas exchange, increased vital capacity, hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and respiratory acidosis, and polycythemia Cor pulmonale.
Emphysema is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) that is characterized by the destruction of the alveolar walls and a reduction in the surface area available for gas exchange.
As a result, individuals with emphysema may experience a decrease in vital capacity, which is the amount of air that can be expelled from the lungs after a deep inhalation.One of the most common complications of emphysema is hypoxemia, which is a condition in which the body does not receive enough oxygen.
This can lead to hypercapnia, a condition in which there is too much carbon dioxide in the blood, and respiratory acidosis, a condition in which the blood becomes too acidic. Another complication of emphysema is polycythemia, which is an increase in the number of red blood cells. This can occur as the body tries to compensate for the lack of oxygen by producing more red blood cells to carry oxygen to the body's tissues.
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Am I correct or no because I really don't know and I'm trying to pass this test so someone plssss help.
Lines that connects to points to elevation is called contour lines option - c is correct.
What do points of elevation have in common with lines?Shape lines: A map's contour lines are drawn by connecting points of equal elevation in order to calculate elevations (elevation refers to height in feet, or meters, above sea level).
The same elevation is shared between points connected by contour lines; where they are close together (they never intersect), the terrain is steep and the elevation changes quickly over a short distance.
Utilizing contour lines is the most typical way to depict the topography of a specific area. Any fictitious line that connects elevation-equalizing points is called a contour.
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What do you think the symbol did to the pitch in the melody?
Answer:
an accidental changes the pitch, so that the note is either higher or lower than the original natural note.
Explanation:
I hope this is the symbol you were talking about, hope this helped
what part of a comet points most directly away from the sun?
The tail of the comet always points away from the sun no matter what direction the comet travels. Because the solar wind always blows out from the sun!
Meat tenderizer contain papain, a enzyme that digests proteins. How does this enzyme help in making meat tender?
Meat tenderizer, which is often used in the kitchen to soften tough cuts of meat, contains the enzyme papain. This enzyme is derived from the papaya plant and is able to break down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids, which helps to make the meat more tender.
When meat is cooked, the proteins in the muscle fibers coagulate, or tighten up, which can make the meat tough and difficult to chew. Papain works by breaking down the proteins in the meat, which makes it easier to chew and swallow. It breaks down the bonds between the protein molecules, making them smaller and less resistant to chewing.
Papain works by cleaving peptide bonds in the meat proteins, particularly the tough, fibrous proteins such as myosin and actin. It works best at a pH of 6-7, and at moderate temperature around 40-50 Celsius. Papain can also work on breaking down connective tissues such as collagen and elastin, in the meat which are usually tough, making the meat more tender.
The amount of time that papain needs to break down the proteins depends on the pH and temperature, but also on the meat's own properties such as the age, the species and the cut. Papain is most effective when used for a period of time before cooking, allowing the enzyme to break down the proteins over a longer period of time. When papain is used for too short a time or at high temperature, it can cause the meat to become mushy.
In summary, papain is an enzyme that helps make meat more tender by breaking down the proteins in the meat, which makes it easier to chew and swallow. Papain also helps in breaking down the connective tissues in meat making it more tender. However, it is important to use meat tenderizer in the right way to get the desired result and not to overuse it which will cause the meat to become mushy.
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The air pollutant least successfully removed from the air by technologies in developed nations is
A. carbon dioxide.
B. sulfur oxides.
C. nitrogen oxides.
D. particulate matter.
E. VOCs
Particulate Matter (PM) is the air pollutant least successfully removed from the air by technologies in developed nations.
Particulate matter is a mixture of solid particles and liquid droplets found in the air. Particulate matter is made up of liquid droplets, dust, dirt, soot, and smoke.
Particulate matter can be inhaled and can cause serious health problems, including respiratory and cardiovascular disease. PM is generated by a variety of sources including combustion, construction, and natural sources such as dust storms.
While many technologies have been developed to reduce PM emissions, they are not always effective in removing PM from the air, especially in heavily industrialized areas due to several factors.
One major reason is that particulate matter can come from a wide variety of sources, such as industrial emissions, transportation, agriculture, and natural sources such as dust storms and wildfires. This makes it difficult to target and effectively reduce the sources of particulate matter.
Another reason is that particulate matter can be transported over long distances by winds, making it difficult to contain and control. This means that even if local sources of particulate matter are reduced, it can still be a problem due to pollution from other areas.
Additionally, particulate matter is very small and can be hard to filter out of the air. The cost and technology required for filtration systems, like HEPA filters or electrostatic precipitators, can be expensive and challenging to implement, especially in developing countries.
In conclusion, particulate matter is a challenging air pollutant to remove, due to its various sources, its transportability, and the difficulty of filtration. A multi-pronged approach including reducing the sources, controlling emissions, and using advanced filtration systems is needed to effectively reduce particulate matter in the air.
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Can you check if I did it right or wrong tell me the answer
Answer:
i think
Explanation:
Four of the following are major human activities that disrupt and degrade freshwater systems; one is not. Choose the one that is not.
Thickness of the ozone layer id not the one that disrupt and degrade freshwater systems.
The stratosphere, 15–40 km above the earth's surface, may include the ozone layer. Under typical pressure and temperature circumstances, the ozone layer in the stratosphere is between 2 and 5 mm thick, and the amount of ozone present varies by season, hour of the day, and location. Ozone builds up in the polar area due to poor photochemical depletion and ozone transfer from the equator. In the absence of other ozone-disturbing components, the highest ozone values are therefore observed over the Polar regions in winter. Wetlands are often referred to be areas of land that are either permanently saturated with moisture or immersed in shallow water.
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Which process could cause a metamorphic rock to return to the surface of Earth to be worn down again? Please explain.
A. deposition
B. plate movement
C. chemical changes
Como concientizar a las personas sobre la manera de usar el agua correctamente?
10 maneras please es un examen :(
Answer:
1.Tomar una ducha
2.Beberlo
3.Nada en él
4 juega con él
5.Ruin tecnología con ella
6.crecer plantas
Lo siento, eso es todo lo que realmente sé.
No sé mucho español, así que ... esto es difícil de escribir.
Espero que esto ayude por favor y mentalmente :D
How can you know for sure that individuals II 3 and II 4 are heterozygous?
Although individuals II 3 and II 4 are unharmed, they must since their children are afflicted. Both are heterozygous since they have the disorder's allele.
Each gene has two alleles, or variations, in each of us. When two identical copies of a gene are present, you are said to be homozygous for that gene.In contrast, a genotype with heterozygosity has different alleles. Everyone who possesses a recessive trait, such as red hair or blue eyes, is homozygous for that gene.
If the two versions of the gene are different from one another, you have a heterozygous genotype. For instance, having one gene for red hair and one allele for brown hair could indicate that you are heterozygous for hair colour. Which qualities are expressed depends on how the two alleles are related.
Complete question:
How can you know for sure that individuals II 3 and II 4 are heterozygous?
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__________ are chemicals that enhance urinary output. nitrogenous wastes countercurrent exchangers diuretics countercurrent multipliers
A) secretagogues B) countercurrent multipliers C) countercurrent exchangers D) diuretics.
Diuretics are chemicals that enhance urinary output. nitrogenous wastes countercurrent exchangers diuretics countercurrent multipliers.
Diuretics, sometimes water pills and Removes salt (sodium) and water from the body called Most of these drugs help the kidneys release more sodium into the urine. Sodium aids in the removal of water from the blood, therefore decreasing the quantity of fluid moving through your veins and arteries.
The nitrogenous waste products excreted by the kidneys are urea and ammonia. Diuretics increase urine output from the kidneys (that is, they promote diuresis). It does this by changing the way your kidneys use sodium. As the kidneys excrete more sodium, they also excrete more water.Diuretics make you pee more often, so take them preferably in the morning.
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11. A particular genetic disorder is associated with a
single gene with two alleles. Individuals with
two recessive alleles are affected. The
prevalence of the disorder is 1 in 6,600.
Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium, which of the following is closest to
the frequency of carriers in the general
population?
Answer: 0.02430
Explanation:
Need help ASAP! Will give you brainliest;) NO LINKS please, WILL REPORT.
Which represents a misuse of antibiotics which could lead to antibiotic resistance?
A). Taking antibiotics only when a bacterial infection is present
B). Finishing the antibiotic prescription even if you are feeling better days before the prescription ends
C). Physicians prescribing antibiotics to treat influenza (virus)
D). Physicians prescribing antibiotics to treat strep throat (bacteria)
Answer:
C
Explanation:
C's right because an antibiotic wouldn't fight a virus, it fights bacteria.