The correct option is a. Divergent plate boundaries. Mountain ranges do not form at divergent plate boundaries. Instead, these boundaries are characterized by the creation of new oceanic crust through seafloor spreading, which causes the plates to move away from each other. Mountain ranges are formed at convergent plate boundaries, where two plates collide and the heavier plate subducts beneath the lighter plate, leading to volcanic activity and the formation of mountains. Transform plate boundaries are where two plates slide past each other, and they do not typically result in the formation of mountains. However, they can contribute to the formation and movement of existing mountain ranges by causing horizontal displacement along faults.
What are all the layers of the skin
Answer:
Epidermis at the very top, then the Dermis a little lower this is the thickest layer, then the subcutaneous tissue this were most of the vanes are then the muscle.
Explanation:
:)
Answer:
Epidermis > Dermis > Hypodermis
Explanation:
The organ skin is the external covering or integument of an animal body, especially when soft and flexible.
The epidermis is the outer, nonvascular, nonsensitive layer of the skin, covering the true skin or corium.
The dermis is the dense inner layer of skin beneath the epidermis, composed of connective tissue, blood and lymph vessels, sweat glands, hair follicles, and an elaborate sensory nerve network.
The hypodermis is an underlayer of epithelial cells in arthropods and certain other invertebrates that secretes substances for the overlying cuticle or exoskeleton.
What is the risk of colon cancer with Lynch syndrome?
An inherited genetic disease called Lynch syndrome, also known as hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC), raises the risk of getting different types of cancer, including colon cancer.
Estimates of a person's lifetime chance of acquiring colon cancer for someone with Lynch syndrome range from 30% to 80%. Compared to the general population, where the lifetime risk of colon cancer is just about 4%, this risk is significantly higher.
Those with a family history of Lynch syndrome or colon cancer may be advised to undergo genetic testing to see if they possess the mutations linked to this disorder because of the elevated risk of colon cancer and other malignancies connected with this condition. To find cancer early and lower the chance of death, routine screening and surveillance may also be advised.
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what are the four nitrogenous bases and how are they related?
The four nitrogenous bases found in DNA are adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T).
Adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T) are the four nitrogenous bases found in DNA (T).
Cytosine and thymine are categorised as pyrimidines, whereas adenine and guanine are purines. Purines are larger than pyrimidines, and hydrogen bonds hold both types of bases together.
Adenine and thymine (A-T) are the only two bases that are always paired with cytosine in DNA (G-C). Between the nitrogenous bases, hydrogen bonds hold these base pairs together.
Genetic information is carried via a unique order of nitrogenous bases in DNA. A protein's structure and function are determined by the amino acid sequence within it, which is determined by the order of the bases.
In general, the four nitrogenous bases and the unique pairing rules for each of them are essential for DNA's ability to serve as the genetic material that stores and transmits information from one generation to the next.
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what is the process by which inhibitory transmitters cause the inside of the neuron to become more negative? a. depolarization b. repolarization c. hyperpolarization d. antipolarization
The process by which inhibitory transmitters cause the inside of the neuron to become more negative is known as hyperpolarization.
Option C is correct answer.
What is hyperpolarization?
Hyperpolarization is a change in a cell's membrane potential that makes it more negative than the resting potential. The reverse of depolarization, it occurs when the cell membrane's voltage increases, the membrane becomes more permeable to potassium ions, or the positive ion efflux exceeds the negative ion influx.
This would result in a decrease in the neuron's excitability, making it more difficult to elicit an action potential. This kind of inhibitory synaptic input is known as hyperpolarization. In order for an action potential to happen, the inside of the neuron must become more positive than the outside.
Therefore, anything that causes the inside of the neuron to become more negative would make an action potential less probable.
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What stage does DNA replication occur
Answer: S phase
Explanation: S phase is the period during which DNA replication occurs.
Hope this helps ;)
what does it mean when a plant isnt going down
Answer:
Explanation:
Wilting of leaves.
I need a Fast answer please
The given food chain "cat" is incorrect as the flow of energy is not consistent with the laws of energy transfer in an ecosystem. In a food chain, energy flows from the producer (plants) to the consumer (herbivores) and then to the predator (carnivores).
What is the correct food chain?The correct food chain should be "leaves<caterpillar<bird<snake" or "leaves<caterpillar<bird<hawk" to ensure that energy flows from the producer to the primary and secondary consumers, and then to the top predator.
How does an incorrect food chain affect the balance of an ecosystem, and what are the potential consequences?An incorrect food chain can disrupt the balance of an ecosystem and result in the loss of biodiversity.
It can lead to an increase in the population of some species and a decrease in others, ultimately causing a ripple effect throughout the food web
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which of the following statements regarding hemostasis is not true? group of answer choices platelets release thromboplastin thrombin works to convert fibrinogen to fibrin thromboplastin reacts with prothrombin to form thrombin fibrin converts platelets into a clot
The following statement regarding hemostasis is not true: platelets release thromboplastin.
Hemostasis is a complex process that involves several steps to stop bleeding after injury. Platelets play a critical role in hemostasis by forming a plug at the site of injury. When a blood vessel is injured, platelets aggregate at the site of injury and release several molecules, including ADP and thromboxane A2, which cause further platelet activation and recruitment. Thrombin is an enzyme that is produced by the coagulation cascade and converts fibrinogen into fibrin, which forms a stable clot. Thromboplastin is also known as tissue factor, which is released by damaged tissues and activates the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. The resulting thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin, which stabilizes the platelet plug to form a clot.
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What ligaments around the head of the radius?
There are several ligaments that surround the head of the radius bone. These include:
Radial collateral ligament.Annular ligament.Quadrate ligament.Oblique cord.A ligament is a tough, elastic connective tissue that connects bones to other bones, and they are an essential component of the body's musculoskeletal system. Ligaments stabilize and support the joints, allowing for a range of movements. The ligaments around the head of the radius are important for stabilizing the joint between the radius and the ulna in the forearm. The radial collateral ligament is located on the lateral side of the elbow joint and connects the lateral epicondyle of the humerus to the annular ligament of the radius.
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Complete the following sentence.
Subjective observations include the way patients feel, their histories, information about any injuries, and whether they
have limited ____ of movement.
Answer:
Subjective observations include the way patients feel, their histories, information about any injuries, and whether they have limited range of movement.
How much does tyler posey make per episode?
Tyler Posey – $7 million make per episode
What is Tyler Posey's net worth?2023 Tyler Posey Net Worth Tyler Posey, a well-known American actor and singer, was born on October 18, 1991, and he now has a net worth of $7 million.
Tyler Posey got the bands tattooed on his arm in real life without telling Jeff Davis or the cast of the show. To avoid having to continuously concealing up on the broadcast, they had to come up with a justification for it.
In 2013, Posey and Seana Gorlick, his childhood sweetheart, got engaged. After a ten-year engagement, the pair called it quits in the same year.
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Describe two ways you can tell two elements apart from each other?
There are various ways to tell two elements apart from each other, but two common methods are:
1. Physical properties: Each element has unique physical properties that can be used to differentiate it from others. For example, elements can have different colors, densities, melting points, boiling points, and solubility in various solvents. Observing these physical properties can help distinguish one element from another.
2. Chemical properties: Elements can be identified by their chemical properties, including their reactivity, the types of compounds they form, and their behavior during chemical reactions. For example, the reaction of an element with acid or with other compounds can be used to identify it. Also, some elements exhibit unique spectral characteristics when heated or exposed to light, which can be used to identify them.
what antibody identfied in prenatal specimens is never a cause of hemolytic diseae of the fetus and newborn
The antibody identified in prenatal specimens that is never a cause of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is the Rh-null antibody. This antibody does not bind to any red blood cell surface antigens and does not cause red cell destruction.
The Rh-null antibody is also known as "diamond blackfan anemia antibody" due to its association with Diamond Blackfan anemia, which is a rare inherited disorder.
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The evaporation of water from the leaves of a
plant is
A. Percolation
B. Transpiration
C. Precipitation
Answer: B Transpiration
Explanation:
B. Transpiration is the correct answer. Transpiration is the process of a plant releasing water vapor from its leaves, stems, and flowers. This process occurs during photosynthesis and is one of the ways that plants regulate their temperature and obtain essential nutrients from the soil.
which is not a characteristic of mitochondria? multiple choice mitochondria have a single membrane for cellular respiration. mitochondria contain dna and ribosomes. the inner space of the mitochondrion contains a fluid matrix. the folded membrane in mitochondria forms cristae. mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration.
The incorrect characteristic of mitochondria is Mitochondria have a single membrane for cellular respiration. Option A is correct.
Mitochondria are organelles found in most eukaryotic cells that are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through the process of cellular respiration. They are often referred to as the "powerhouse" of the cell.
Mitochondria have two membranes, an outer membrane and an inner membrane, that are important for their function in cellular respiration. The inner membrane is extensively folded to form cristae, which increase the surface area available for the electron transport chain and ATP synthesis.
The space inside the inner membrane is filled with a fluid matrix that contains DNA, ribosomes, and enzymes necessary for the production of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.
Hence, A. Mitochondria have a single membrane for cellular respiration is the correct option.
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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"Which is not a characteristic of mitochondria? multiple choice A) mitochondria have a single membrane for cellular respiration. B) mitochondria contain DNA and ribosomes. C) the inner space of the mitochondrion contains a fluid matrix. D) the folded membrane in mitochondria forms cristae. E) mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration."--
the threshold potential of a neuron is typically -55 mv. what do you think might happen if a neuron's threshold potential was -65 mv (i.e., 10 mv lower than normal)?
The threshold potential of a neuron is the minimum electrical potential required to trigger an action potential, which is a brief electrical signal that allows neurons to communicate with each other. Normally, the threshold potential of a neuron is around -55 mV.
If the threshold potential of a neuron was 10 mV lower than normal, at -65 mV, it would mean that the neuron would require a weaker stimulus to trigger an action potential. This could potentially result in the neuron firing more frequently than it would normally, or even firing spontaneously without any external stimulus.
On the other hand, it's also possible that the neuron may become less responsive to stimuli and require a stronger input to reach its new, lower threshold potential. This could result in the neuron firing less frequently than it would normally, or potentially not firing at all if the input is not strong enough to reach the new threshold.
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what is the function of the quadriceps muscles when the heel contacts the ground in walking? stabilize the knee against the reaction force from the floor flex the lower leg at the ankle joint flex the thigh at the pelvic joint extend the lower leg at the knee joint
The function of the quadriceps muscles when the heel contacts the ground in walking is to extend the lower leg at the knee joint.
Extend the lower leg at the knee joint is the correct answer.
What are the quadriceps muscles?The quadriceps muscles, commonly known as the quads, are located in the front of the thigh. The quadriceps consist of four muscles: rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, and vastus intermedius.
What is the function of the quadriceps muscles?The quadriceps muscles are responsible for extending the knee joint, which is critical in walking, running, jumping, and other lower-body movements. The rectus femoris muscle is unique among the quadriceps in that it also helps flex the thigh at the hip joint.
Besides, the quadriceps muscles help to stabilize the knee joint when the heel contacts the ground during walking. This is due to the fact that the knee joint is subjected to a reaction force from the floor, and the quadriceps muscles help to counteract this force and protect the knee joint from injury.
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how can competitive and noncompetitive inhibition be distinguished in terms of vmax? the vmax remains unchanged with a competitive inhibitor, while it decreases with a noncompetitive inhibitor. the vmax remains unchanged with a competitive inhibitor, while it increases with a noncompetitive inhibitor. the vmax decreases with a competitive inhibitor, while it remains the same with a noncompetitive inhibitor. the vmax decreases with both a competitive inhibitor and a noncompetitive inhibitor.
The vmax remains unchanged with a competitive inhibitor, while it decreases with a noncompetitive inhibitor is the statement that distinguishes competitive and noncompetitive inhibition in terms of vmax.
vmax refers to the maximum velocity, which is the rate of an enzymatic reaction under ideal conditions. The enzyme’s active site is occupied by a substrate at the start of the reaction. Afterward, the enzyme undergoes a conformational change that promotes the conversion of substrate into product. The reaction rate is at its maximum at this point.
vmax can be calculated from a Michaelis-Menten curve, which plots substrate concentration against reaction rate.
1. Competitive inhibitor: A molecule that competes with a substrate for the active site of an enzyme is known as a competitive inhibitor. The active site of the enzyme is occupied by the competitive inhibitor, preventing the substrate from binding.
2. Noncompetitive inhibitor: A noncompetitive inhibitor is a molecule that binds to an enzyme at a site other than the active site. It causes a conformational change in the enzyme, altering the shape of the active site and preventing the substrate from binding. The reaction rate decreases as a result of this.
When it comes to Vmax, competitive inhibitors have no effect on the maximum velocity of an enzymatic reaction, while noncompetitive inhibitors decrease it. Noncompetitive inhibitors change the shape of the enzyme, causing it to lose activity. This results in a decreased vmax for the enzyme. So, the statement that distinguishes competitive and noncompetitive inhibition in terms of vmax is, "The vmax remains unchanged with a competitive inhibitor, while it decreases with a noncompetitive inhibitor."
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Figure 18. 2 identify the types of joints that are numbered in these illustrations?
These are the joints that have been shown in the description below: A. coronal suture - fibrous joint (synarthroses). B. Pubosymphysial joint - cartilaginous joint(amphiarthrosis)-symphysis type. C. intervertebral joint -cartilaginous joint(amphiarthrosis)-symphysis type
D. intercarpel joint - synovial joint -gliding joint
F. atlanto axial joint -synovial joint-pivot joint
G. (7): metacarpophalyngeal joint -synovial joint -gliding joint (8): as it is present between carpal and metacarpal of thumb :saddle joint -synovial joint
H. Hip joint - synovial joint -ball and socket type
Fibrous joints, also known as fixed or immovable joints, are a type of joint in which bones are joined by dense connective tissue consisting of collagen fibers. These joints provide stability and support to the body and are found in areas where strong support is needed, such as the skull, where bones are joined by sutures.
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Full question:
identify the types of joints that are numbered in these illustrations?
a nerve inferior to the aortic arch controls the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, excluding the cricothyroid muscle. this structure is located in which region of the mediastinum?
The nerve you are referring to is the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which controls the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, excluding the cricothyroid muscle. This structure is located in the superior mediastinum, inferior to the aortic arch.
The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X), from which the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) originates, travels indirectly through the larynx. It provides sensation to the larynx below the level of the vocal chords as well as innervation to all of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles, with the exception of the cricothyroid muscles.
The structure located in the mediastinum region which controls the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, excluding the cricothyroid muscle is the left recurrent laryngeal nerve. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is one of the cranial nerves that supply the larynx (voice box) muscles. It originates from the vagus nerve, which descends down through the neck into the mediastinum region on the left side of the trachea.
The nerve innervates all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle, which is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve.
The nerve you are referring to is the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which controls the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, excluding the cricothyroid muscle. This structure is located in the superior mediastinum, inferior to the aortic arch.
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which of the following gram-positive bacteria does not belong with the others? group of answer choices mycobacterium listeria corynebacterium nocardia actinomyces
Nocardia is a gram-positive bacteria, but unlike the others listed, it does not belong to the same family. Mycobacterium, Listeria, Corynebacterium, and Actinomyces are all members of the Actinobacteria family, while Nocardia is a member of the Actinomycetaceae family.
Nocardia species are aerobic, filamentous, branching, and pleomorphic bacteria which are commonly found in soil and water. They can cause various diseases, such as Nocardiosis, in humans, animals, and plants. In contrast, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Corynebacterium and Actinomyces are generally non-pathogenic and are found in air, soil, and water.
Although they are all gram-positive bacteria, they have different characteristics, habitats, and disease-causing potential, making Nocardia the odd one out.
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the mitotic stage of cell division consists of dna synthesis and dna degradation. mitosis and cytokinesis. duplication and division. cell growth and cell death. meiosis and mitosis.
The mitotic stage of cell division is comprised of a number of distinct processes that ensure the accurate duplication and segregation of chromosomes. DNA synthesis, or replication, is the process by which the genetic material of the cell is duplicated so that each daughter cell contains an identical copy of the genetic material.
DNA degradation is the process by which the genetic material of a cell is broken down and destroyed. Mitosis is a complex process by which the replicated genetic material is divided into two identical sets, one for each daughter cell.
Cytokinesis is the process in which the cell's cytoplasm is divided into two daughter cells. Cell growth occurs during the interphase stage of the cell cycle, which occurs between mitotic cell divisions. Cell death occurs when cells are no longer able to carry out their biological functions. Meiosis is a special type of cell division that occurs in the reproductive cells (gametes) of sexually reproducing organisms, and it results in the production of haploid cells.
Meiosis is distinct from mitosis in that it involves two rounds of nuclear division and a stage of DNA exchange between homologous chromosomes.
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Yes, or No about Meiosis
11. YES, Anaphase I is different from anaphase during mitosis because in Anaphase I, homologous chromosomes are separated, while in anaphase during mitosis, the sister chromatids are separated.
Anaphase I is the stage of meiosis I where the homologous chromosomes, consisting of two sister chromatids, are separated and pulled towards opposite poles of the cell by the spindle fibers. This separation is facilitated by the shortening of microtubules attached to the kinetochores of the chromosomes. During Anaphase in mitosis, the sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated and pulled to opposite poles of the cell.
12. YES, Telophase I is different from telophase during mitosis because in Telophase I, the cells produced have half the number of chromosomes as the original cell, whereas in telophase during mitosis, the cells produced have the same number of chromosomes as the original cell.
Telophase I marks the end of meiosis I, during which the two homologous chromosomes have been separated into two different cells. Therefore, the number of cells created from the original cell at the end of Telophase I is two. During Telophase in mitosis, the chromosomes have been separated into two identical nuclei, which means that the number of cells remains the same.
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Classify the explanation or structure with the correctlung. Right Lung Has a horizontal fissure Oblique fissure separates superior lobe and inferior lobe Has a cardiac nalch Has the lingula Has 8-10 bronchopulmonary segments Main bronchus is shorter, wider Left Lung Has 10 bronchopulmonary segments Larger and wider
Right Lung: Has a horizontal fissure; Has 10 bronchopulmonary segments; Main bronchus is shorter, wider; Larger and wider. Left Lung: Oblique fissure separates superior lobe and inferior lobe; Has a cardiac notch; Has the lingula; Has 8-10 bronchopulmonary segments.
Bronchopulmonary segments are the parts of the lungs that are supplied by a specific bronchus and its vessels. These segments are called to be the largest functional units of the anatomical lobes. Each segment has its own supply of air and blood.
Cardiac notch is a small cavity formed in the left portion of the lung. This is done to fit in the heart. This is the reason why the left lung is little smaller than the right lung.
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1) can you list 3 things that distinguish bryozoa from cnidarians (dig deep and review major features of the body plan)?
Yes, Bryozoa are distinguished from Cnidaria by their hard external skeleton, sedentary lifestyle, and complex body plan.
1. Bryozoa have an exoskeleton made of calcium carbonate, whereas cnidarians lack an exoskeleton.
2. Bryozoa are colonial animals, meaning that many individuals live together and form a colony, whereas cnidarians can be solitary or colonial. Cnidarians can reproduce sexually or asexually, but Bryozoans only reproduce sexually.
3. Cnidarians have a distinct body symmetry, while bryozoans have a bilateral symmetry. Cnidarians have a body that is sac-like and only one opening that functions as the mouth and anus, whereas Bryozoa have a body with multiple openings. Bryozoans possess a specialized organ for feeding called a lophophore, which cnidarians lack.
Bryozoa are an ancient group of tiny marine invertebrates, also known as "moss animals." They are sessile, meaning they are anchored to a surface and do not move around like other animals. They live in colonies of numerous individuals and can be found in a variety of habitats around the world.
Cnidarians are aquatic animals that include jellyfish, corals, sea anemones, and hydroids. Cnidarians have a soft, sac-like body with tentacles arranged around a central mouth, and most have radial symmetry. They use specialized cells called cnidocytes to catch prey or defend themselves. Most cnidarians are found in saltwater habitats, but some species live in freshwater.
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you are examining a human pedigree for a trait. you notice that an offspring can be affected even if neither parent is affected. this immediately tells you that the trait is:
While examining a human pedigree for a trait, the mentioned finding immediately tells us that the trait is autosomal recessive.
Pedigree is a diagrammatic representation of a family history of an inherited trait. It helps in interpreting the inheritance pattern of a particular trait across generations. The symbols used in a pedigree diagram represent individuals in a family and their relationship with one another.
An autosomal recessive trait is a trait controlled by a gene on an autosome chromosome (i.e., not on X or Y chromosome) and is recessive. If an individual inherits two copies of the recessive gene from both parents, then the trait will be expressed. In the case of an autosomal recessive trait, parents who are carriers (heterozygous) for the recessive gene will not show the trait.
However, their offspring could be affected if they inherit two copies of the recessive gene, one from each parent. In conclusion, an autosomal recessive trait is a trait that an offspring can be affected by even if neither parent is affected.
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Place the following aqueous solutions of nonvolatile, nonionic compounds in order of decreasing osmotic pressure. I. 0.011 M sucrose II. 0.00095 M galactose III. 0.0060 M glycerin
The solutions can be arranged in order of decreasing osmotic pressure as follows: I > III > II. The solution of sucrose has the highest osmotic pressure, followed by the solution of glycerin, and then the solution of galactose.
The osmotic pressure of an aqueous solution depends on the concentration of solute particles in the solution. More concentrated solutions have higher osmotic pressures. The three solutions listed have different concentrations of different solutes, so we need to calculate the number of particles that each solute will generate in solution to compare the osmotic pressures.
I. 0.011 M sucrose: Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose. It does not dissociate into ions in solution, so it will generate one particle per molecule dissolved. Therefore, the concentration of solute particles in this solution is 0.011 particles/molecule.
II. 0.00095 M galactose: Galactose is a monosaccharide that also does not dissociate into ions in solution. Therefore, the concentration of solute particles in this solution is 0.00095 particles/molecule.
III. 0.0060 M glycerin: Glycerin is a small, nonionic molecule. It does not dissociate in solution, so it will generate one particle per molecule dissolved. Therefore, the concentration of solute particles in this solution is 0.0060 particles/molecule.
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Representatives from the three major groups of mammals are included on the phylogenetic tree in this level. What are the three groups called, and which animal(s) on the tree belong to each group?
Monotremes, marsupials, and placental mammals make up these three groupings, which are together the biggest.
The root node stands for the taxa on the tree's most recent common ancestor.
The phylogenetic tree measures what?An illustration of the evolutionary connections between organisms is called a phylogenetic tree. Phylogenetic trees represent theories rather than undisputed truths. A phylogenetic tree's branching structure demonstrates how many species or other groupings have developed from a number of common predecessors.
The tree's trunk symbolises the lineage of ancestors, and the branch tips stand in for the ancestor's offspring. You advance through time as you work your way from the root to the tips. A phylogeny's branching representation of a lineage splitting (speciation) is called speciation.
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QuestionThe serous membrane which covers the lungs is calledAPericardiumBPeritoniumCPerichondriumDPleuraMedium
The serous membrane that covers the lungs is called D) pleura medium
The pleura is a thin, double-layered membrane that lines the inside of the thoracic cavity and covers the lungs. The two layers of the pleura are the visceral pleura, which covers the surface of the lungs, and the parietal pleura, which lines the inside of the chest wall.
The pleura serves several important functions in the body. It helps to protect the lungs from damage and provides a smooth surface for the lungs to move against as they expand and contract during breathing. The pleura also produces a small amount of fluid that helps to lubricate the surface of the lungs and reduce friction during breathing.
Therefore, The correct option is D. Pleura Medium
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a _____ allele masks the expression of an alternate form of that same gene.
A dominant allele masks the expression of an alternate form of that same gene.