Please help

A

B


C

D

E

F

Answer:

1)

Factors of 25:    1, 5, 25

Factors or 75:    1, 3, 5, 15, 25, 75

Multiples of 25:    25, 50, 75

Multiples of 75:    75, 150, 225

2)

Factors of 35:    1, 5, 7, 35

Factors of 45:    1, 3, 5, 9, 15, 45

Multiples of 35:    35, 70, 105

Multiples of 45:    45, 90, 135

3)

The factors of 21:     1, 3, 7, 21

The factors of 56:      1, 2, 4, 7, 8, 14, 28, 56

Multiples of 21:    21, 42, 63

Multiples of 56:     56, 112, 168

4)

The factors of 54:     1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54  

The factors of 72:      1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 72

Multiples of 54:       54, 108, 162

Multiples of 72:        72, 144, 216

5)

The factors of 27:     1, 3, 9, 27

The factors of 36:     1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36

The multiples of 27:     27, 54, 81

The multiples of 36:     36, 72, 108

6)

The factors of 12:     1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12

The factors of 16:     1, 2, 4, 8, 16

The multiples of 12:    12, 24, 36

The multiples of 16:     16, 32, 48

Answer:

D. 23/25

Step-by-step explanation:

Add all the numbers inside the venn diagram for the number of outcomes

> 10+2+8+8+6+5+7 = 46

Then add all the numbers inside and outside the venn diagram for the number of possibilities

> 10+2+8+8+6+5+7+4 = 50

[tex]p(a \: u \: b \: u \: c \: ) = \frac{total \: number \: of \: outcomes}{total \: number \: of \: possibilities} [/tex]

[tex]p( a \: u \: b \: u \: c) = \frac{46}{50} [/tex]

[tex]p(a \: u \: b \: u \: c \: ) = \frac{23}{25} [/tex]

Answer:

The company filled 454570 bags.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

forty six hundred thousand tweny five thound and six hundred eighty nine

six hundred and fifty eight hundred nine thoundsand two and two hundred and fifty

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

SteThe difference between climate change mitigation strategies and climate change adaptation is that mitigation is aimed at tackling the causes and minimising the possible impacts of climate change, whereas adaptation looks at how to reduce the negative effects it has and how to take advantage of any opportunities thap-by-step explanation:

Answer:

q

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey there!

I got 900 as the answer.

I hope this helped.

Answer:

34

Step-by-step explanation:

We start by working out the slope. The slope is change in y over change in x, so (66-58)/(-56)-(-42) is the slope here. 66-58 is 8, and -56-(-42) is -14. -8/14=-4/7. The equation of a line in slope-intercept form is y=mx+b where b is the y intercept and m is the slope. Since the slope is -4/7, then y=-4/7x+b. We then insert any x and y pair into this equation and solve for b, the y intercept to get it. (We can do ANY pair) So, 50=(-4/7)(-28)+b.

: 50=16+b

: 50-16=b

: 34=b

So, in conclusion, the y intercept is 34. Hope this helps!

Answer:

x= 2, y= 1

Step-by-step explanation:

3x -y= 5 -----(1)

-x +y= -1 -----(2)

(1) +(2):

3x -y -x +y= 5 -1

2x= 4

Divide both sides by 2:

x= 4 ÷2

x= 2

Substitute x= 2 into (2):

-2 +y= -1

y= -1 +2

y= 1

Answer:

D will be the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

You could cut the orange into four pieces by using 2 straight cuts/making an x on the orange. Then you could flip the orange onto the side/middle and cut again to make 8 pieces.

Hope this works for you!

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 4, -2

Step-by-step explanation: I just visualized the graph in my head and went from there

Answer:

9.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Each pay 7.05.

7.05 times 4 equals 28.20, so it is 28.20 for 3 tickets, they all pitched in.

Each ticket costs 9.4

Please mark brainliest

Answer:

Each ticket costs $9.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Since they're using the Cinema tickets offer, all four friends are paying actually paying for a total of 3 tickets. They get 1 ticket for free.

7.05 x 4 = 28.2 (Amount paid from all 4 friends)

Now divide 28.2 by the # of tickets they're paying for.

28.2/3 = 9.4 (Cost of each ticket)

Hope this helps! Please mark me as brainliest! :D

Answer:

32/51

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1. 2x + 3y = 1,470

–2x –2x

3y = –2x + 1,470

3y/ 3 = –2x/3 + 1,470/3

y = –2x/3 + 490

The y-intercept of this equation is 490 and the slope is -2x/3.

2. I would graph this line by finding the y-intercept 490 first.

Then, you would move down twice from 490 to 488.

Finally, you would move to the right 3 times.

3. F(x) = –2x/3 + 490

The graph would represent the profit of Sal’s Sandwich Shop on every sandwich and wrap from the lunch specials last month.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Perpendicular lines intersect to create right angles. That rules out A and B because both have a right angle in them. C has two lines that are parallel. The only one left is D which is neither parralell or perpendicualar.

Answer:

4.9 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

78.4 diveded by 4

19.6 divided by 4

=4.9

Answer: $149.8

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the 1% of the 140 which is 1.4 because 140/100 = 1.4

Times by 7 to get 7%. 1.4 x 7 = 9.8

Add them together. 140+9.8 = 149.8

If x is the only thing in the denominator, then,

[tex]f(x) = \frac{1}{x}+2\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{1}{3+h}+2\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{1}{3+h}+2\left(\frac{3+h}{3+h}\right)\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{1+2(3+h)}{3+h}\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{1+6+2h}{3+h}\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{7+2h}{3+h}\\\\[/tex]

We replace every copy of x with 3+h, as shown in the second step. Afterwards, we can optionally simplify to form one big fraction.

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Or if the "x+2" is in the denominator, then we have these steps:

[tex]f(x) = \frac{1}{x+2}\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{1}{3+h+2}\\\\f(3+h) = \frac{1}{h+5}\\\\[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1. There are only 4 numbers including 5 that follow the "five or more" requirment, and the probability of spinning it once is 4/8, or 1/2. (The total sections is 8) Then we multiply 1/2 and 1/2 together to get the "two times in a row" requirement done. (1/2)*(1/2)= 1/4 is the probability.

2. There are two values on the spinner that are a multiple of 3, 3 itself and 6. Again, the total amount of numbers/sections is 8, so the probability of spinning a multiple of three is 2/8 or 1/4. The probability of spinning an odd number is 4/8 or 1/2. (1/2)*(1/4)=1/8 is the probability.

3. The probability of spinning one odd number is 1/2, and so we multiply 1/2 by itself four times. (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)=1/16 is the probability.

4. There are 6 numbers greater than two on the number wheel not including two itself. So the probability of that is 6/8, or 3/4. Then we multiply 3/4 by itself 3 times as it asks. (3/4)*(3/4)*(3/4)*(3/4)=81/256 is the probability.

Note that I am not really sure about the answer myself, but I hope that this can help in some way. Good luck! :)

Answer:

489,162

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it can help you lovelots

-10 and -8????

I believe because -10 + -8 = -18 and they are both consecutive

Answer:

m∠I = 56°

m∠1 = 30°

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

80

Step-by-step explanation:

you can divide the shape into a square and a rectangle, the square being the 7 by 10 area. by that logic, you can find the area of that portion to be 70. now you have the cut off rectangle to find, and you know one side is 2. to find the other side, you have to subtract 7 from 12 because by doing that you get the value of just that portion of the side. by doing that you get 5. going from there, you can multiply 2 by 5 to get 10 for the area of the rectangle. now you have to add 70 and 10, and you get 80!

hope this helped :D

Answer:

Choice A

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey there!

I got the answer on the quiz right for this so you should be good now

Answer:

y = 8x + 14  (8x is WRONG)

This is how it is supposed to be

y - 2 = 6x + 12

y = 6x + 14

She must combine like terms, not unlike terms

Step-by-step explanation:

the first one is equivalent : Adding property is applied

the second one is not equivalent.