Should you Hold or Restrain a Person Having a Seizure?

Answers

Answer 1

It is not recommended to hold or restrain a person having a seizure.

It is generally not advised to hold or restrain a person having a seizure as it can be dangerous for both the person having the seizure and the person trying to restrain them. Instead, it is important to keep the person safe by removing any nearby hazards such as sharp objects or hard surfaces. Additionally, cushioning the person's head with something soft can help prevent injury. Stay with the person until the seizure is over, and make sure to time the seizure and note any unusual symptoms, if possible. If the seizure lasts longer than five minutes or the person has difficulty breathing, call your local emergency services immediately.

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Related Questions

A majority of the land in the Middle East is unsuitable for crops because

ocean water cannot be converted to freshwater.

freshwater sources are scarce in the region.

people cannot live in these desert areas.

mountains block water from coming inland

Answers

Most of the Middle East's land is unsuited for farming because mountains prevent water from entering the interior.

Why is farming in the Middle East so challenging?

The world population is expected to exceed 10 billion people by 2050, and there will be a growing gap between the amount of agricultural products produced and the foods that will be needed. Growing urbanisation activities and severe climatic change contribute to soil degradation, which reduces the amount of arable land and increases water shortages, resulting in low agricultural output and supply chain problems.

Due to severe weather, an arid climate, and a lack of natural resources that make agriculture production difficult, the Middle East regions still rely heavily on imports to supply the population's food demands.

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Albuterol 1.2mg po TID is ordered for a child weighing 27 lbs. The package insert
states the safe dose for children is no more than 0.3mg/kg/24 hours in 3 divided
doses. Available is albuterol syrup 2mg/mL. Determine the following:

Is the dosage safe

Answers

Answer:

The package insert states the safe dose for children is no more than 0.3mg/kg/24 hours in 3 divided doses. Available is albuterol syrup 2mg/mL.

Explanation:

The complex carbonhydrates are….

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Answer:

Complex carbohydrates are made up of sugar molecules that are strung together in long, complex chains. Complex carbohydrates are found in foods such as peas, beans, whole grains, and vegetables. Both simple and complex carbohydrates are turned to glucose (blood sugar) in the body and are used as energy.

Which of the following would be most effective in implementing the findings of a new clinical treatment for problems associated with bowel motility for the staff nurses

Answers

Effective implementation would involve staff education and ongoing support, as well as clear communication and guidelines.

Staff education: Nurses should be provided with comprehensive education on the new treatment, including how it works, how to administer it, and any potential side effects.

Ongoing support: Nurses should have access to ongoing support and guidance as they begin to use the new treatment in practice.

Clear communication and guidelines: The new treatment should be clearly communicated and guidelines should be established for the nurses to follow.

Encourage feedback: Nurses should be encouraged to provide feedback on their experiences with the new treatment and share any challenges or successes they encounter.

Regular monitoring and evaluation: Regular monitoring and evaluation of the treatment should be done to ensure that it is safe and effective for patients.

It is important to keep in mind that the implementation of new treatments may require a cultural change within the organization, so it's important to involve all stakeholders, including nurses, physicians, and administrators, in the implementation process. Clear communication and ongoing support will be crucial to the success of the implementation and the adoption of the new treatment by the staff nurses.

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the main structure of the brain is divided into which of the following

Answers

Answer:

I think it is C but not 100%

Explanation:

The answer is C......

Most of our drugs originally came either directly or indirectly from
-South America.
-plants.
-petroleum.
-German chemists

Answers

Most drugs known to man came either directly or indirectly from plants, such as caffeine, marijuana, opium, etc.

There are a wide variety of plant species which provide us with biologically active substances, some of which are mind numbing whereas others are life changing. Herbal remedies extracted from plants give much better therapeutic results as compared to chemically produced drugs. Almost about 80% of all cardiovascular medicines and antibiotics as well as drugs for cancer treatment use plant sources as one of the main ingredients. Chemicals derived from plants have proved their effectiveness over man-made chemicals for many years and are hence, a safer and healthier approach when compared. Polysaccharides derived from plant, flavonoids, opiates such as morphine provide us with a wide range of bioactive compounds.

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What is a warning sign that suggests a weight-loss plan is a fad diet rather than a healthy weight-loss plan

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The warning sign that suggests a weight-loss plan is a fad diet rather than a healthy weight-loss plan are promising rapid weight loss, requires eliminating foods, has rigid rules and severely restrict calories.

A fad diet is a diet that is popular for a brief period of time, analogous to fashion fads, without being a normal dietary prescription and frequently making pseudoscientific or unrealistic claims for rapid weight reduction or health advantages. Fad diets are not backed up by clinical research, and their health advice are not peer-reviewed, therefore they frequently make unfounded claims concerning health and illness.

A healthy diet is one that promotes or maintains good health. A healthy diet supplies the body with vital nourishment, including liquids, macronutrients like protein, micronutrients like vitamins, and enough fibre and dietary energy. A healthy diet may include fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, as well as little or no processed food or sugary beverages. A mix of plant-based and animal-based foods can meet the needs for a balanced diet, however vegans will need a non-plant source of vitamin B12.

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A nurse is providing education on growth and development to a group of parents of school-age children. What information should the nurse include regarding the role of the peer group in the life of a school-age child?

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The nurse should include a source of affection, regarding the role of the peer group in the life of a school-age child.

School age child development is a range from 6 to 12 times of age. During this time period observable differences in height, weight, and figure of children may be prominent. The language chops of children continue to grow and numerous geste changes do as they try to find their place among their peers.

Peer relationships  give a unique environment in which children learn a range of critical social emotional chops, similar as empathy, affection, cooperation, and problem- working strategies. Peer connections can also contribute negatively to social emotional development through bullying, rejection, and counterculturist peer processes.

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A nurse is educating a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes. Which example demonstrates cognitive learning by the client

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The example that demonstrates cognitive learning by the client is that the client describes signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.

Diabetes, commonly known as diabetes mellitus, is a collection of metabolic illnesses defined by a persistently high blood sugar level (hyperglycemia). Frequent urination, thirst, and increased hunger are common symptoms. Diabetes, if left untreated, causes a slew of health problems. Diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperosmolar hyperglycemia, and mortality are all examples of acute complications. Cardiovascular disease, stroke, chronic renal disease, foot ulcers, nerve damage, eye damage, and cognitive impairment are all serious long-term consequences.

Diabetics may also develop diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a metabolic disorder marked by nausea, vomiting, and stomach discomfort, the odour of acetone on the breath, deep breathing known as Kussmaul breathing, and, in extreme instances, a lowered level of awareness. DKA necessitates hospitalisation for immediate treatment.

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Choose the correct answer:-
regarding endometriosis which is false:
1. occurring through the pelvic vaginal scares, vagina, bladder, lungs may be involved
2. may result from retrograde menstruation
3. more distant foci result from lymphatic or blood born spread
4. retrograde menstruation is always associated with endometriosis

Answers

Regarding endometriosis the false statement is that retrograde menstruation is always associated with endometriosis and is therefore denoted as option 4.

What is Endometriosis?

This is referred to as a medical disorder in which the cells similar to the lining of the uterus, or endometrium, grow outside the uterus.

Retrograde menstruation is not always associated with endometriosis as the cause is unknown but there are other risk factors such as genetics, started to menstruate later than usual and have used low-dose oral contraceptives which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.

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Which of the following is an explanation for why therapeutic misconception might happen in a phase I trial of a cancer medication

Answers

Patients may not understand the risks associated with a phase I trial, leading them to mistakenly believe the trial is intended to provide direct therapeutic benefit.

What is phase I trial of a cancer medication?A phase I trial of a cancer medication is the first step in testing a new drug or treatment for cancer. This type of clinical trial is designed to test the safety of a drug or therapy and to determine the best dosage to give patients. During the trial, a small group of individuals will be given the drug or therapy and monitored closely to evaluate any side effects or other safety concerns.The trial will also assess how the body absorbs the new drug or therapy, how it is metabolized, and what the maximum tolerated dose is. This information is used to determine the best dosage for future trials. If a drug or therapy passes the phase I trial, it will then be tested in larger groups of people in phase II trials.Phase I trials can be a critical step in developing new treatments for cancer. The information obtained from the trial can help researchers understand how a drug or therapy works in the body and how it should be used in the future. It can also provide the basis for larger clinical trials that may result in more effective therapies.

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What's the primary focus of the pharmacy technician?
How are pharmacy technicians required to continue training after graduation?
What’s the difference between a drug’s brand name and generic name?

Answers

The primary focus of the pharmacy technician is to process and dispense prescribed drugs (question 1). Pharmacy technicians are required to continue training after graduation because new drugs appear and they need to be correctly prescribed (question 2). The difference between a drug’s brand name and a generic name is the fact that the generic name is not technical.

What is the primary role of a pharmacy technician?

The primary role of a pharmacy technician is to provide proper prescriptions for approved drugs for specific patients.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the primary role of a pharmacy technician is based on the prescription of different drugs, which requires continuous specialization after graduation.

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you are on the scene your patient is a 60 year old woman who stepped off a curb and injured her ankle. your exam shows that her left ankle is swollen and painful. which of the following should you do ?
A) Transport the potioni immediately to a trauma center, applying high-fluer oxygen enroute
B) Explain to the patient that her ankde in frectured and you must oplini her ankde to prevent[urther injury and reduce pain C) Explain to the pattent that you won't know what type of injury she has to her ankle until the isx-royed at the amargency department and splint the ankle
D) Explain to the pattent that her ankde is sprained and transport her with her ankle elevated on apills with a cold pack opplied to the injury

Answers

D) Explain to the pattent that her ankde is sprained and transport her with her ankle elevated on apills with a cold pack opplied to the injury.

It is important to take the appropriate actions to ensure the patient's safety and well-being after an injury. In this case, the patient has a swollen and painful left ankle, but without x-raying the ankle it is not possible to know the nature and extent of the injury. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate. Explain to the patient that you won't know what type of injury she has to her ankle until the is x-rayed at the emergency department and splint the ankle to prevent further injury and reduce pain. Splinting the ankle is a first step in managing her injury and will help to keep her ankle in a stable position while she is transported to the emergency department. High-flow oxygen is not necessary unless the patient is showing signs of distress. A and D options are not appropriate as they are not based on a proper diagnosis.

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You arrive on the scene to find CPR in progress. Nursing staff report the patient was recovering from a pulmonary embolism and suddenly collapsed. Two shocks have been delivered, and an IV has been initiated. What do you administer now

Answers

Epinephrine 1 mg IV is the drug of choice in this case because it is a sympathomimetic drug which increases heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac output.

The patient has suffered a sudden collapse, and an increase in heart rate and blood pressure is needed to revive the patient. Epinephrine 1 mg IV will also increase the amount of oxygen to the heart, which is essential for resuscitation.

Additionally, epinephrine can help reverse pulmonary edema, which is a common complication of pulmonary embolism. It can also help to restore circulation to the patient's organs and tissues. Epinephrine is the drug of choice in this situation because it can be administered quickly and it is effective in increasing heart rate and blood pressure in cases of sudden collapse.

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A nurse working in a community health center is preparing a flow sheet detailing essential screenings according to age group. At which developmental stage on the chart should the nurse add scoliosis screening

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The nurse should add scoliosis screening in the Pre-adolescent/adolescent phase of the developmental stage.

Scoliosis screening refers to physical testing of the body which includes full body X ray, spinal radiograph and MRI. It is performed in growing children because at that age they tend to grow stronger bones and muscles. The major symptoms of Scoliosis is uneven shoulders, uneven length of the arms of legs etc. It is caused due to degeneration of spinal disc and is irreversible in nature and so far not much cure has been determined. Adolescent idiopathic scoliosis is the most common type of scoliosis and is usually diagnosed during age of puberty.

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in the word neuroscience, what does “neuro” refer to?

Answers

The correct answer is the brain

An OTR who works in a hospital setting is collaborating with the interprofessional team to promote health literacy for all patients. In addition to reviewing the reading level and clarity of patient education handouts, what action is BEST for the OTR to recommend as part of this process

Answers

The best action for the OTR (or occupational therapist) to recommend as part of promoting health literacy for all patients in a hospital setting would be to provide individualized instruction and education to patients and their families.

The action could include teaching patients how to understand and manage their own health conditions, providing instruction on how to use medical equipment and devices, and helping patients understand and navigate the healthcare system. Additionally, the OTR can work with the interprofessional team to develop and implement strategies to improve health literacy among all patients, such as providing education in languages other than English or using plain language to communicate medical information.

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he patient has an order for metformin (Glucophage) 2 g orally. The medication available is metformin 1000 mg/scored tablet. How many tablets will the nurse administer

Answers

The nurse will administer 2 tablets of metformin for the patient. A drug called metformin is used to treat type 2 diabetes.

It works by increasing the body's response to insulin and decreasing the amount of sugar the liver produces. Additionally, it aids in reducing high blood sugar levels. Each metformin 1000 mg/scored tablet contains 1000 mg of the active ingredient, so two tablets will provide the 2 g of metformin ordered. It is important for the nurse to administer the correct dose of medication to ensure the patient receives the correct therapeutic benefit.

The nurse should always double check the prescription to ensure they are giving the correct dose. The nurse should also ensure the patient is aware of any side effects that may occur. This includes stomach pain, diarrhoea, nausea, and vomiting.

The nurse should also ensure the patient understands how to take the medication, including the time of day, how much to take, and when to take it. It is also important to monitor the patient's blood sugar levels to ensure the medication is having the desired effect. It is important that the nurse follows the correct procedure when administering medication to ensure the patient receives the correct dose of medication and the best outcome from the treatment.

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A person eats an apple and is sick within two hours. This person suspects that there was some kind of contaminant on the skin of the apple. This person has

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Due to sickness after eating the apple the person made a correlation that the apple had contaminants. The scientific method is a method for explaining any observable phenomenon in a systematic manner.

The scientific method generally begins with an observation, followed by the development of a hypothesis, testing on the experiment, and finally reaching a conclusion.

A simple experiment is one that researchers frequently use to see if changes in one variable cause changes in another—in other words, to establish cause-and-effect.

If a person eats an apple and becomes ill within 2 hours, and suspects that there is some kind of contaminant on the apple's skin, a scientific explanation will be developed. In this case, the person made an observation that led them to draw a correlation between sickness and eating the apple.

A person eats an apple and is sick within two hours. This person suspects that there was some kind of contaminant on the skin of the apple. This person has:

a. performed an experiment

b. made a correlation

c. established a theory

d. tested a hypothesis

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A prenatal client who is 6 weeks' gestation calls the clinic to report vaginal bleeding. For what concern will the nurse further assess the client

Answers

The nurse will further assess the client for spontaneous abortion.

Abortion is the surgical removal of an embryo or foetus from a pregnancy. Miscarriage, also known as "spontaneous abortion," occurs in around 30% to 40% of pregnancies and occurs without intervention. An induced abortion, sometimes known as a "induced miscarriage," occurs when purposeful efforts are made to terminate a pregnancy. In its unmodified form, the term abortion frequently refers to an induced abortion. Women get abortions for a number of reasons, which vary by nation.

The spontaneous termination of a pregnancy before twenty weeks of gestation is known as spontaneous abortion. The term "early pregnancy loss" refers solely to first-trimester spontaneous abortions. Miscarriage is referred to as "spontaneous abortion" by medical practitioners. A missed abortion gets its name because this type of miscarriage does not exhibit the usual indications of bleeding and cramping.

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What is performed for a patient who does not have symptoms, abnormal findings, or any past history of the disease

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A screening test is performed for a patient who does not have symptoms, abnormal findings, or any past history of the disease.

A screening test is utilize to discover probable health issues as well as illnesses in persons who are asymptomatic. The objective is early identification and lifestyle adjustments or surveillance to lower illness risk or diagnose disease early enough to treat it is most effectively. Screening tests are not diagnostic; rather, they are designed to select a portion of the population who really should undergo further testing to assess the presence or absence of illness.

While screening tests aren't always 100% accurate, it is often more helpful to have them at the suggested times by your healthcare professional than not to have them at all.

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Mr. Mathews is a 47-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. On examination, you have noted a bruit heard over the thyroid. This is suggestive of:

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Based on the results of the physical examination, the client has hyperthyroidism. If the thyroid gland is enlarged, use the bell to listen for vascular sounds. The blood supply is dramatically increased in a hypermetabolic state, and a vascular bruit, a soft rushing sound, may be heard.

The thyroid gland is an important hormone gland that regulates metabolism, growth, and development in the human body. It aids in the regulation of many body functions by continuously releasing a consistent amount of thyroid hormones into the bloodstream.

Hyperthyroidism occurs when the thyroid gland produces an excessive amount of thyroid hormone. This condition is also known as overactive thyroid. Hyperthyroidism causes the body's metabolism to accelerate. This can result in a variety of symptoms, including weight loss and hand tremors.

Mr. Mathews is a 47-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. On examination, you have noted a bruit heard over the thyroid. This is suggestive of:

A. hypothyroidism.

B. hyperthyroidism.

C. thyroid cancer.

D. thyroid cyst.

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You are providing care to a patron who started choking on some food. The victim becomes unresponsive. Which of the following should you do first

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The victim becomes unresponsive than firstly you should lower the victim to the ground and begin CPR starting with chest compressions.

Choking is a true medical emergency that requires fast, appropriate action by anyone available to save a choking person's life. Choking can beget a simple coughing fit, but complete blockage of the airway may lead to death.

Cardiopulmonary reanimation (CPR) is an exigency procedure conforming of casket condensing frequently combined with artificial ventilation in an trouble to manually save complete brain function until farther measures are taken to restore robotic blood rotation and breathing in a person who's in cardiac arrest.

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A nurse is asked to start an intravenous line of isotonic 0.9% sodium chloride. He accidentally grabs a bag of hypertonic 9% sodium chloride instead. What will happen to his patient

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If the nurse administers the hypertonic 9% sodium chloride solution intravenously, it could cause a severe electrolyte imbalance in the patient and lead to significant fluid shifts. This can increase the risk of cardiac arrest, stroke, or even death. It is important that the nurse double check the correct solution before administering it.

If a nurse were to accidentally start an intravenous (IV) line of hypertonic 9% sodium chloride instead of isotonic 0.9% sodium chloride, it could have serious consequences for the patient. Hypertonic solutions contain a higher concentration of solutes (i.e. sodium chloride) than the cells of the body, while isotonic solutions contain a concentration of solutes that matches the cells of the body.

When a hypertonic solution is introduced into a patient’s body, the cells of the body become dehydrated as the water is drawn out of the cells and into the hypertonic solution. This is known as osmosis. This dehydration can cause cells to become damaged, leading to serious medical complications.

The most common symptoms of a hypertonic IV line include headaches, abdominal cramping, nausea, and vomiting. As the concentration of the sodium chloride increases, the patient could experience more severe symptoms such as confusion, seizures, difficulty breathing and even coma. In extreme cases, death can result from the introduction of a hypertonic solution.

If a nurse were to administer a hypertonic solution, it is important to take immediate action.

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The nurse inserts a nasogastric tube into the right nares of a patient. When testing the tube aspirate for pH to confirm placement, what does the nurse anticipate the pH will be if placement is in the lungs

Answers

The anticipated pH if the placement of the nasogastric tube is in the lungs is 6, which means option D is the right answer.

The pH is the concentration of hydrogen ions inside a medium. A pH of 6 indicates that the medium is lightly acidic. When the tube is inserted into the lungs, the pH is acidic because of the presence of carbon dioxide which is acidic in nature as it form carbonic acid inside. Auscultation is used at the bedside to check for appropriate placement of a nasogastric tube. Chest radiography is the gold standard for confirming appropriate placement. It is used for feeding purposes to the people who cannot eat voluntarily, or breath properly.  

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To refer to complete question, see below:

The nurse inserts a nasogastric tube into the right nares of a patient. When testing the tube aspirate for pH to confirm placement, what does the nurse anticipate the pH will be if placement is in the lungs?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

Answer to the question in the picture

Answers

Answer:

the last one is the answer.

Explanation:

good luck on the quiz. :)

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a pregnant woman about the signs and symptoms to be reported immediately to her health care provider. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse include

Answers

Headache with visual changes in the third trimester sudden leakage of fluid during the second trimester lower abdominal pain with shoulder pain in the first trimester.

Which advice should the nurse give to a pregnant client who is 26 weeks along and has constipation complaints?

In addition to improving dietary fiber and water intake, moderate daily exercise is the primary line of treatment for constipation. Laxatives are the second line of treatment if these are ineffective.

Which advice would the nurse give to a pregnant client to deal with morning sickness?

Regularly consume small meals because nausea is often brought on by an empty stomach. Avoiding meal preparation or cooking may be beneficial. Take in as much liquid as you can. It can be beneficial to sometimes sip on diluted fruit juice, cordial, weak tea, ginger tea, clear soup, or beverages containing beef extract.

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Which of the four tissue types have intercellular junctions?

Answers

The four tissue types that have intercellular junctions are;epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue andnervous tissue.

Which assessment finding for a client with Cushing disease would the nurse need to report immediately to the Health care provider

Answers

The nurse should immediately report signs and symptoms of hypokalemia, such as an irregular apical pulse, to the physician.

Cushing's syndrome is caused by an increase in the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary gland (secondary hypercortisolism). This is most commonly caused by a pituitary adenoma (particularly pituitary basophilism) or by an excess of hypothalamic CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone) (tertiary hypercortisolism/hypercorticism) that increases the adrenal glands' manufacture of cortisol. Pituitary adenomas are responsible for 80% of endogenous Cushing's syndrome when exogenously supplied corticosteroids are excluded. Pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction is the horse variant of this condition.

Cushing's disease symptoms are similar to those observed in other types of Cushing's syndrome. Patients with Cushing's disease often exhibit one or more signs and symptoms as a result of elevated cortisol or ACTH levels. Although it is unusual, some Cushing's disease patients have massive pituitary tumours (macroadenomas). Aside from the significant hormonal impact of increasing blood cortisol levels, the big tumour might compress nearby tissues. These tumours have the potential to compress the nerves that transmit information from the eyes, resulting in a loss of peripheral vision. Cushing's condition can potentially cause glaucoma and cataracts. Obesity and impaired linear growth are the two most common symptoms in children.

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A nurse is helping a physician insert a subclavian central line. After the physician has gained access to the subclavian vein, he connects a 10-ml syringe to the catheter and withdraws a sample of blood. He then disconnects the syringe from the port. Suddenly, the client becomes confused, disoriented, and pale. The nurse suspects an air embolus. She should:

Answers

Turning the client on his left side and placing the bed in Trendelenburg's position is the most important immediate action to take when dealing with an air embolus.

This position helps to move the air bubble away from the heart toward the right atrium where it can be absorbed more easily. It also helps to prevent the air bubble from further entering the vascular system, since the air bubble is lighter than blood and will tend to rise upwards. Trendelenburg's position also helps to increase venous pressure in the lower body to prevent further air from entering the vascular system.

Finally, this position helps to reduce the amount of pressure in the right atrium and ventricle, which helps to reduce symptoms associated with the air embolus. By performing these actions, the nurse is helping to reduce the risk of serious or life-threatening complications from the air embolus.

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Other Questions
Which of the following individuals can perform the action mentioned without first obtaining a real estate license in Missouri What is the perimeter of a 30 60 90 triangle whose shorter leg is 5 inches long? In the book Drivers Ed by Caroline Cooney Who sits on Morgans lap? Which of the following statements is true?A Protons are positively charged and have a mass of 1 amu.B Electrons are negatively charged and have a mass of 1 amuC. The nucleus of an atom is positively charged and never has a mass of 1 amu,D. Neutrons are negatively charged and have a mass of 1 amu, resumen de la introducciond de la filosofia filosofia Which of the following statements is true?1.Plant cells have cell walls instead of cell membranes.2.The excretory and the lymph system work together to control all bodily functions.3.Reproduction by mitosis produces a single identical cell.4.The cardiovascular system transports oxygen and carbon dioxide for the respiratory system. [tex](4x-3)=(6x+13)[/tex] By law an 'if you are injured' poster must be displayed. where would you display this poster? how many even numbers of 3 digits can be formed of the digits 1,2,3,4,5,6 when repitition of digits is allowed please help quickly If UY=13p-1 and VX=20p-95 than what is UY Francisco levanta las sillas grandes __________. A. fcil B. vieja C. fcilmente D. rpido homework i need to do pls help help !!!! a film student examines some of the major movies that were released in a particular year Es una division el cociente es 14, el divisor 19, calcule el dividiendo si se sabe que el residuo resut ser el maximo. 3. What is an aguinaldo? Can a right triangle with sides 6 and 8 cm and 10 cm be formed give reason? At what age does the "settling" process generally begin with regard to height?a) 35b) 45c) 55d) 65 1. Write the equation of the mirror line for the segment with endpoints (5, 4) and (-1, -1).2. Find the reflection of the point A(3, -2) through the mirror line of y = 1/2x 1. In baseball, each time a player attempts to hit the ball, it is recorded. The ratio of hits compared to total attempts is their batting average. Each player on the team wants to have the highest batting average to help their team the most. For the season so far, Jana has hit the ball 12 times out of 15 attempts. Tasha has hit the ball 9 times out of 10 attempts. Which player has a ratio that means they have a better batting average?A:Tasha, because she has the lowest ratio since 0.9 > 0.8B:Tasha, because she has the highest ratio since 27 over 30 is greater than 24 over 30C:Jana, because she has the lowest ratio since 0.9 > 0.8D:Jana, because she has the highest ratio since 27 over 30 is greater than 24 over 30 Petrarch is known _____. Select all that apply.for his politically motivated literatureas the Father of Humanismas a pagan worshipperfor his sonnets