Solve the inequality graphically.
3-* > 6*
a. x < 1
b.X>1
C.X>0
d. x <0

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.4295 = 42.95% probability that at least 4 of them say job applicants should follow up within two weeks.

For each manager, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they say job applicants should follow up within two weeks, or they do not say it. The opinion of a manager is independent of any other manager, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution  

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]  

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

The parameters are:

In this problem:

The probability that at least 4 of them say job applicants should follow up within two weeks is [tex]P(X \geq 4)[/tex], which is given by:

[tex]P(X \geq 4) = 1 - P(X < 4)[/tex]

In which:

[tex]P(X < 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{8,0}.(0.41)^{0}.(0.59)^{8} = 0.0147[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{8,1}.(0.41)^{1}.(0.59)^{7} = 0.0816[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{8,2}.(0.41)^{2}.(0.59)^{6} = 0.1985[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{8,3}.(0.41)^{3}.(0.59)^{5} = 0.2759[/tex]

[tex]P(X < 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.0147 + 0.0816 + 0.1985 + 0.2759 = 0.5707[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 4) = 1 - P(X < 4) = 1 - 0.5705 = 0.4295[/tex]

0.4295 = 42.95% probability that at least 4 of them say job applicants should follow up within two weeks.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/25166697

Answer:

14 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\large y=\dfrac{1}{2} x-{\boldsymbol5}^{\sf /y -intersept} \\\\ \rm Answer : B)-5[/tex]

Answer:

1a) O is the steepest

1b) because it is more angled

1c) all lines are positive

Step-by-step explanation:

1a) plot the coordinates on the graph and find the steepest

Answer:

1a) O) y = 5x

1b) The slope value is greater than M and N

1c) They all meet on the point of (0,0) because there is no b value and are all positive slopes.

G=Z6×Z2G=Z6×Z2 will do (where ZnZn denotes the cyclic group of order nn). As a direct product of cyclic (so abelian) groups, GG is again abelian. Given any element (x,y)∈G(x,y)∈G, the order of (x,y)(x,y) will be the least common multiple of the orders of x,y.x,y.  

The order of xx must divide 66 and the order of yy must divide 2,2, so the order of (x,y)(x,y) is at most lcm(6,2)=6.lcm⁡(6,2)=6. But |G|=|Z6|⋅|Z2|=6⋅2=12.|G|=|Z6|⋅|Z2|=6⋅2=12. Since no element of GG has order 12,12, then GG is not cyclic.

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

ΔLMN is isosceles with angle L being 35°.

Angle  measure of M and N is same:

Arc measure is twice the intercepting angle, since the angle is not central:

Answer:

x=26

Step-by-step explanation:

x+11+2x+1+90=180 [Angles in a straight line]

3x=180-102

x=78/3

x=26

or,

x+11+2x+1=90 [Complementary angles]

3x=90-12

x=78/3

x=26

cuál de los siguientes documentos es más Útil para construir carretera

Answer:

11

0

1

30 ...........

.....

Answer:

X= 17

Step-by-step explanation:17-5 = 12 (Just add 12 and 5 for answer)

Answer: x=17

Add 5 on both sides

x-5+5=12+5

x=17

Step-by-step explanation: Hope this helps!

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⇆⇆⇄πβ≅≅ΔΔΔ

yes

Answer:

Cost of each pendant = $2.80

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we're given information regarding the total cost of beads, $13.20, and the total cost of beads and pendants for all 4 necklaces, $24.40:

Let b = beads

p = pendants

C = total cost of beads and pendants for all 4 necklaces.

b + p = C

$13.20 + p  = $24.40

$13.20 - $13.20 + p  = $24.40 - $13.20

p = $11.20 (This represents the total cost of 4 pendants).

To find out the cost of each pendant, divide $11.20 by 4:

$11.20 ÷ 4 = $2.80

Therefore, the cost of each pendant is $2.80.

Answer:

I'm 50% sure it's $7.52 though I may be wrong

Answer:

6%

To find 6 percent of a number, multiply the number by 0.06. In this instance, 3.5 x 0.06 = 0.21, or twenty-one hundredths.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.21 / 3.50 × 100%

= 21/350 × 100%

= 3/50×100%

= 3×2%

=6%

Step-by-step explanation:

brainliest plz

Answer:

10/48 - 2/24 - 1/12

Step-by-step explanation:

answer is 1/12

Answer:

the opposite of 1 1/2(1.5) is -1 1/2(-1.5)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

multiply the cost by 0.18 to get the tip amount or multiply the cost by 1.18 to get the total including tip.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Properties of a Rectangular Prism : A rectangular prism has 8 vertices, 12 sides and 6 rectangular faces. All the opposite faces of a rectangular prism are equal.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: [tex]A) \ 3\vec{x} -2\vec{y}[/tex]  

Step-by-step explanation:

The resultant can be calculated using triangular law of vector addition as :

[tex]\rm \vec{r}=\vec{AB} +\vec{AC}=2x+y+x-3y=\boxed{3x-2y }[/tex]

Answer:

D) 19.8 lbs

Explanation:

1kg in household measurement is equal to 35.274 ounces. 35.274*9=317.466 ounces.

1kg is also equal to 2.205 lbs. 9*2.205=19.8416

9 kg is also equal to 9000 grams, but grams are not a part of the household measurement system

a) 9000 grams. b) 9000 ounces. c) 19.8 ounces. d) 19.8 pounds.

This leaves us with 19.8 lbs

Answer:

18%

Step-by-step explanation:

Step- by - Step Explanation:

Area of a circle=πr²

=3.14...×6²

=113.0973355292325

Approximately ≈113.1cm²

Please mark BRAINLIEST if I'm right.

Answer:4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$106

Step-by-step explanation:

So, this is what we know:

$6 per vehicle (1 bus) + $2 per person (50 people)

Here is the solution:

= $6 + $100

= $106

Answer:

I would say if your lucky 6/20 but if not 4/10

Answer:

option b

Step-by-step explanation:

have a great day