The charge across a capacitor is given by q=e^2tcost. Find the current, i, (in Amps) to the capacitor (i=dq​/dt).

Answers

Answer 1

The current, i, to the capacitor is given by i = dq/dt = 2e^2tcos(t) - e^2tsin(t).

The charge across a capacitor is given by the equation q = e^2tcos(t). To find the current, we need to differentiate the charge equation with respect to time, i.e., i = dq/dt.

Let's start by finding the derivative of the equation q = e^2tcos(t). The derivative of e^2t with respect to t is 2e^2t, and the derivative of cos(t) with respect to t is -sin(t). Applying the chain rule, we get:

dq/dt = (2e^2t)(cos(t)) + (e^2t)(-sin(t))

Simplifying further, we have:

dq/dt = 2e^2tcos(t) - e^2tsin(t)

It's important to note that this expression for current is in terms of time, t. To find the actual value of the current at a specific time, you would need to substitute the appropriate value of t into the equation.

In conclusion, the current to the capacitor is given by i = 2e^2tcos(t) - e^2tsin(t) (in Amps).

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Related Questions

The _______ is the part of the Basilica where the Altarpiece is located.
The architectural feat, called a ________________, was created to put a round dome on a square base.
The Flavian Amphitheater (Colosseum) and the Pantheon were constructed with ______________, a structural material for which the Romans became famous.

Answers

The Apse is the part of the Basilica where the Altarpiece is located, the pendentive is the architectural feat that was created to put a round dome on a square base.

The Basilica is a term that originated in Rome and referred to public buildings that were used for government and legal proceedings, and later for Christian worship. The Basilica was typically divided into a central nave with side aisles, which led to an apse or a transept at the end.

The part of the Basilica where the Altarpiece is located is called the Apse.The architectural feat, called a pendentive, was created to put a round dome on a square base. It is a curving triangular element that is used to transition the shape of a dome to the square base below it. The pendentive is often used to create large domes, and it is an essential element of Byzantine architecture.

The Flavian Amphitheater (Colosseum) and the Pantheon were constructed with concrete, a structural material for which the Romans became famous. Roman concrete was made by mixing volcanic ash, lime, and water, which created a strong, durable material that was well suited for large structures like the Colosseum and the Pantheon. Roman concrete is still used today, and it is considered one of the most durable building materials in the world.

In conclusion, , and concrete is the structural material for which the Romans became famous, which was used in the construction of the Colosseum and the Pantheon.

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A detailed explanation (including examples) of a process that would ensure that all engineering work and deliverables described in the draft SEMP are captured by the project management planning process and is therefore included in scope, cost, and schedule estimates (Approximately 500 words total)

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The Standard for Project Management for Engineering and Construction, developed by the Project Management Institute (PMI), emphasizes the importance of the Systems Engineering Management Plan (SEMP) to effectively manage engineering and construction projects.  

To ensure that all engineering work and deliverables are captured and included in the project's scope, cost, and schedule estimates, the following steps can be followed:

1. Establish a project management team comprising both engineering and non-engineering personnel. This team will develop and implement the project management plan, incorporating the SEMP, and ensure the inclusion of all engineering work and deliverables in the project estimates.

2. Develop a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS) in collaboration with the engineering team. This WBS should encompass all engineering work and deliverables and be reviewed and approved by the project management team. It will assist in estimating the scope, cost, and schedule of the engineering tasks.

3. Create a detailed project schedule in consultation with the engineering team. The project schedule, reviewed and approved by the project management team, should include all engineering work and deliverables and help estimate the engineering task durations.

4. Develop a comprehensive cost estimate with input from the engineering team. The cost estimate should be reviewed and approved by the project management team and consider all engineering work and deliverables to estimate their associated costs.

5. Establish a change management process, including a formal review and approval system for engineering work and deliverable changes. The project management team should review and approve all changes, assessing and documenting their impact on scope, cost, and schedule.

6. Develop a quality control plan that outlines procedures for reviewing and approving engineering work and deliverables before submission to the project management team. The plan should also include procedures for verifying compliance with project requirements.

7. Implement a configuration management process that tracks and controls changes to engineering work and deliverables. This process should integrate with the change management system to ensure proper documentation and approval of all changes.

By following this process, the project management team can effectively manage the engineering work, ensuring its completion within the defined scope, budget, and schedule while meeting the required quality standards. For example, in a bridge development project, these steps would be tailored to address the specific engineering tasks such as bridge design, construction planning, material procurement, and bridge construction.

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How much heat is released when 50g of steam at 130° is converted into water at 40°C? The specific heats (Cs) of ice, water, and steam are 2.09 J/g.K, 4.184 J/g.K, and 1.96 J/g.K, respectively. For H2O ΔHfus = 6.01 kJ/mol, and ΔHvap = 40.7 kJ/mol.
A.113kJ
B.18.8kJ
C.128.5kJ
D.15.5kJ

Answers

The total heat released when 50g of steam at 130°C is converted into water at 40°C is:Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3= 113kJ + 20.92kJ + 16.59kJ= 150.51kJTherefore, the answer is 128.5kJ (Option C).

Heat released when 50g of steam at 130° is converted into water at 40°C can be calculated using the following steps:Formula for the heat released when steam at 130°C is converted into water at 40°C is:

Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3Q1

= Heat released when steam at 130°C is converted into water at 100°CQ2

= Heat released when water at 100°C is cooled to 0°CQ3

= Heat released when ice at 0°C is converted into water at 0°CQ1

= m x ΔHvap

= 50g x (40.7 kJ/mol) / (18.02 g/mol)

= 113kJQ2

= m x Cs x ΔT

= 50g x 4.184J/gK x (100 - 0)K

= 20.92kJQ3

= m x ΔHfus

= 50g x (6.01 kJ/mol) / (18.02 g/mol)

= 16.59kJ

Hence, the total heat released when 50g of steam at 130°C is converted into water at 40°C is:Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3= 113kJ + 20.92kJ + 16.59kJ= 150.51kJTherefore, the answer is 128.5kJ (Option C).

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A concrete pavement is tested for indirect tensile strength for 4 samples of 375 psi, 400 psi, 425 psi and 750 psi at 7 days. What is the average compressive strength at 28 days if we assume 28 days compressive strength is 50% more than 7 days strength?

Answers

The average compressive strength of the concrete pavement at 28 days is approximately 578.125 psi.

To find the average compressive strength of a concrete pavement at 28 days, we need to determine the 7-day compressive strength and then calculate the 28-day compressive strength using the given information.

Step 1: Find the 7-day compressive strength
We are given the indirect tensile strength for four samples at 7 days: 375 psi, 400 psi, 425 psi, and 750 psi. The 7-day compressive strength is assumed to be the same as the indirect tensile strength.

So, the 7-day compressive strengths for the four samples are: 375 psi, 400 psi, 425 psi, and 750 psi.

Step 2: Calculate the 28-day compressive strength
The 28-day compressive strength is assumed to be 50% more than the 7-day compressive strength.

To calculate the 28-day compressive strength for each sample, we multiply the 7-day compressive strength by 1.5 (to increase it by 50%).

For the four samples, the 28-day compressive strengths would be:
- Sample 1: 375 psi * 1.5 = 562.5 psi
- Sample 2: 400 psi * 1.5 = 600 psi
- Sample 3: 425 psi * 1.5 = 637.5 psi
- Sample 4: 750 psi * 1.5 = 1125 psi

Step 3: Find the average compressive strength at 28 days
To find the average compressive strength at 28 days, we sum up the 28-day compressive strengths for the four samples and divide by the number of samples.

(562.5 + 600 + 637.5 + 1125) psi / 4 samples = 2312.5 psi / 4 samples = 578.125 psi (rounded to three decimal places)

Therefore, the average compressive strength of the concrete pavement at 28 days is approximately 578.125 psi.

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SOLVE FOR X PLEASE SHOW WORK

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Step-by-step explanation:

2x + 3 + 3x + 2 = 90°

5x = 85

X = 17

An irrigation canal with trapezoidal cross-section has the following elements: Bottom width = 2.4 m, depth of water = 0.9 m, side slope = 1.5 horizontal to 1 vertical, slope of canal bed = 0.001. coefficient of roughness = 0.025. The canal will serve clay-loam rice land. 25. What is the hydraulic radius in meters? a. 0.487 c. 0.632 b. 0.748 d. 0.598

Answers

The hydraulic radius of the irrigation canal is approximately 1.05 meters.

The correct is from the options provided is not listed, but the calculated hydraulic radius is 1.05 meters.

To calculate the hydraulic radius of the trapezoidal irrigation canal, we need to use the formula:

Hydraulic radius = (Area of flow) / (Wetted perimeter)

First, let's calculate the area of flow. The trapezoidal cross-section can be divided into two parts: the rectangular bottom and the triangular sides.

The area of the rectangular bottom can be calculated as:

Area_rectangular = Bottom width * Depth of water = 2.4 m * 0.9 m = 2.16 m²

The area of the triangular sides can be calculated as:

Area_triangular = 2 * (1/2) * (Side slope) * (Depth of water) * (Bottom width)

= 2 * (1/2) * (1.5) * (0.9 m) * (2.4 m)

= 1.62 m²

Total area of flow = Area_rectangular + Area_triangular

= 2.16 m² + 1.62 m²

= 3.78 m²

Next, let's calculate the wetted perimeter. The wetted perimeter consists of the bottom width and the length of the two sides.

Wetted perimeter = Bottom width + 2 * (Depth of water / Side slope)

= 2.4 m + 2 * (0.9 m / 1.5)

= 2.4 m + 2 * 0.6 m

= 3.6 m

Now, we can calculate the hydraulic radius:

Hydraulic radius = (Area of flow) / (Wetted perimeter)

= 3.78 m² / 3.6 m

= 1.05 m

Therefore, the hydraulic radius of the irrigation canal is approximately 1.05 meters.

The correct is from the options provided is not listed, but the calculated hydraulic radius is 1.05 meters.

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Consider the following equation for the acceleration of an object: a=30+ vit a is the acceleration (ft/s), vis the velocity of the object, and rrepresents time (s) The equation is dimensionally homogeneous, and the units are consistent. What should be the dimensions and the units of the constant 30 and the velocity of the object v? Show your work in detail.

Answers

Given acceleration equation is a = 30 + vi t. The equation is dimensionally homogeneous, and the units are consistent. The unit of acceleration is ft/s2

The dimension of the constant 30 and the velocity of the object v:

We know that acceleration =  a = 30 + vi t

Here, the unit of acceleration a = ft/s2

Here, t = s

Let's find the unit of vi

Firstly, we know thatv = change in distance / change in timev = (d/t)

Putting it back into the acceleration equation,

a = 30 + (d/t) x t=> a = 30 + dv/t

Now, if we look at the above equation, dimensionally, we have the following:

a = [M^0L^1T^-2]

= 30 + [M^0L^1T^-1] x T => [M^0L^1T^-2]

= 30 + [M^0L^1T^-1]

Therefore, the dimension of the constant 30 is [M^0L^1T^-2]And the dimension of the velocity of the object v is [M^0L^1T^-1].

So, the units of the constant 30 and the velocity of the object v are consistent and have a dimension of [M^0L^1T^-2] and [M^0L^1T^-1], respectively. The given equation for the acceleration of an object is a = 30 + vit.

Here, a is the acceleration (ft/s2), vi is the velocity of the object, and t represents time (s).The unit of acceleration is ft/s2. Since the given equation is dimensionally homogeneous, its units are consistent.

Therefore, the dimension and units of the constant 30 and the velocity of the object v should be determined.For this, we can write the velocity v as v = change in distance / change in time.

Hence, v = (d/t).Now, putting the value of v in the acceleration equation, we get:

a = 30 + (d/t) x t=> a = 30 + dv/t

Dimensionally, the equation is as follows:

a = [M^0L^1T^-2]

= 30 + [M^0L^1T^-1] x T => [M^0L^1T^-2]

= 30 + [M^0L^1T^-1]

Therefore, the dimension of the constant 30 is [M^0L^1T^-2] and that of the velocity of the object v is [M^0L^1T^-1]. So, the units of the constant 30 and the velocity of the object v are consistent and have a dimension of [M^0L^1T^-2] and [M^0L^1T^-1], respectively.

The dimension of the constant 30 is [M^0L^1T^-2], and that of the velocity of the object v is [M^0L^1T^-1].

The units of the constant 30 and the velocity of object v are consistent and have a dimension of [M^0L^1T^-2] and [M^0L^1T^-1], respectively.

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It has been suggested that the triplet genetic code evolved from a two-nucleotide code. Perhaps there were fewer amino acids in the ancient proteins. Comment on the features of the genetic code that might support this hypothesis? 2.The strands of DNA can be separated by heating the DNA sample. The input heat energy breaks the hydrogen bonds between base pairs, allowing the strands to separate from one another. Suppose that you are given two DNA samples. One has a G + C content of 70% and the other has a G + C content of 45%. Which of these samples will require a higher temperature to separate the strands? Explain your answer.

Answers

The features of the genetic code that support the hypothesis of the triplet genetic code evolving from a two-nucleotide code are the degeneracy and universality of the genetic code.

The genetic code is degenerate, meaning that multiple codons can code for the same amino acid. For example, the amino acid leucine is coded by six different codons. This suggests that the genetic code could have started with fewer amino acids, and as more amino acids evolved, the code expanded to accommodate them. Additionally, the genetic code is universal, meaning that it is shared by almost all organisms on Earth. This universality suggests that the genetic code has ancient origins and has been conserved throughout evolution. These features of the genetic code support the hypothesis that it evolved from a simpler, two-nucleotide code with fewer amino acids.

In summary, the degeneracy and universality of the genetic code provide evidence to support the hypothesis that the triplet genetic code evolved from a two-nucleotide code with fewer amino acids. The degeneracy of the code suggests that it could have expanded to accommodate more amino acids over time, while the universality of the code implies ancient origins and conservation throughout evolution.

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A pin-pin column has a Length of 15 meters and an elastic modulus of 150 GPa. If Ix for the column is 169,095 mm^4 and ly is 61,913 mm^4, what is the buckling load for the column in kN? Type your answ

Answers

The buckling load for the pin-pin column is 7852 kN.

To calculate the buckling load for the pin-pin column, we can use the formula: P_critical = (π^2 * E * I) / (K * L^2)

Where:
- P_critical is the critical buckling load
- E is the elastic modulus
- I is the moment of inertia
- K is the effective length factor
- L is the length of the column

First, let's convert the given length from millimeters to meters: 15 meters = 15000 mm
Now, let's substitute the given values into the formula: P_critical = (π^2 * 150 GPa * 169,095 mm^4) / (K * (15000 mm)^2)

To find the effective length factor (K), we need to consider the boundary conditions of the column. Since it is a pin-pin column, K is equal to 1.0.

P_critical = (π^2 * 150 GPa * 169,095 mm^4) / (1.0 * (15000 mm)^2)

Now, we can simplify the equation by converting mm^4 to m^4:
169,095 mm^4 = 169,095 * (10^-12) m^4

P_critical = (π^2 * 150 GPa * 169,095 * (10^-12) m^4) / (1.0 * (15000 mm)^2)


P_critical = (π^2 * 150 * 10^9 * 169,095 * 10^-12 m^4) / (1.0 * (15000 * 10^-3)^2)

P_critical = (π^2 * 150 * 169,095) / (1.0 * (15000 * 10^-3)^2) * 10^-3

P_critical = 7.852 * 10^6 N

Finally, let's convert the load from Newtons to kilonewtons:
1 kilonewton (kN) = 1000 Newtons (N)

P_critical = 7.852 * 10^6 N / 1000 = 7852 kN


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2.1 Using the valence shell electron repulsion theory (VSEPR) and valence bond Theory (VBT) answer the questions below for each of the following molecules; (A) GeCl_2(B) SiH_4(C) BF_3 2.1.1 Draw the hybrid orbital diagram for each of the molecules in 2.1 (6)

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Using the valence shell electron repulsion theory (VSEPR) and valence bond Theory (VBT):

(A) GeCl2: Hybrid orbital diagram: Cl: ↑↓ | Ge: ↑←←←←←←←→↑ | Cl: ↑↓

(B) SiH4: Hybrid orbital diagram: H: ↑↓ | Si: ↑→→→↑ | H: ↑↓

(C) BF3: Hybrid orbital diagram: F: ↑↓ | B: ↑←←←←←↑ | F: ↑↓

The hybrid orbital diagrams for each of the molecules using both the Valence Shell Electron Repulsion Theory (VSEPR) and Valence Bond Theory (VBT).

(A) GeCl2:

VSEPR predicts that GeCl2 has a linear molecular geometry. In VBT, germanium (Ge) forms four sp hybrid orbitals by mixing one 3s orbital and three 3p orbitals. Each chlorine atom (Cl) contributes one unhybridized 3p orbital.

Hybrid orbital diagram for GeCl2:

      Cl: ↑↓

            |    

Ge:  ↑←←←←←←←→↑

            |

      Cl: ↑↓

(B) SiH4:

VSEPR predicts that SiH4 has a tetrahedral molecular geometry. In VBT, silicon (Si) forms four sp3 hybrid orbitals by mixing one 3s orbital and three 3p orbitals. Each hydrogen atom (H) contributes one unhybridized 1s orbital.

Hybrid orbital diagram for SiH4:

      H: ↑↓

            |

Si:  ↑→→→↑

            |

      H: ↑↓

(C) BF3:

VSEPR predicts that BF3 has a trigonal planar molecular geometry. In VBT, boron (B) forms three sp2 hybrid orbitals by mixing one 2s orbital and two 2p orbitals. Each fluorine atom (F) contributes one unhybridized 2p orbital.

Hybrid orbital diagram for BF3:

       F: ↑↓

             |

 B:  ↑←←←←←↑

             |

       F: ↑↓

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Discuss at length the supplemental nature of Mechanical electrical and plumbing aspect of Architecture and the aesthetic.

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The mechanical, electrical, and plumbing (MEP) aspects of architecture play a vital role in the design, functionality, and overall performance of a building. While primarily serving functional purposes, MEP systems also have the potential to contribute to the aesthetic qualities of a structure. This integration of functionality and aesthetics is essential in creating successful architectural designs.

MEP systems encompass various components such as heating, ventilation, air conditioning, lighting, electrical power distribution, plumbing, and fire protection. These systems are crucial for ensuring occupant comfort, safety, and the efficient operation of buildings. They are typically hidden within the infrastructure of a building, serving as its vital organs. However, their design, layout, and implementation can have a significant impact on the overall aesthetic quality of the architecture.

Aesthetic considerations in MEP design involve finding a balance between functionality and visual appeal. While MEP systems are primarily functional, architects and designers can incorporate creative solutions to enhance the aesthetic aspects. For example, integrating lighting fixtures as design elements, utilizing exposed ductwork or pipes as architectural features, or incorporating sustainable energy systems that align with the building's design philosophy.

MEP systems also contribute to the overall sustainability and environmental performance of a building. Integrating energy-efficient technologies, renewable energy sources, and water conservation measures can enhance both the functionality and aesthetic appeal of a structure. For instance, solar panels can be integrated into the architectural design, acting as both a sustainable energy source and an aesthetic feature.

The MEP aspects of architecture are supplemental to the overall design, functionality, and performance of a building. While primarily serving functional purposes, these systems have the potential to contribute to the aesthetic qualities of a structure. By integrating creative design solutions, architects can enhance the visual appeal of MEP systems, turning them into architectural features.

Additionally, incorporating sustainable and energy-efficient technologies within MEP systems aligns with the growing focus on environmental consciousness in architecture. The successful integration of functionality and aesthetics in MEP design is crucial for creating buildings that are not only efficient and safe but also visually pleasing and sustainable. This balance between functionality and aesthetics ensures that the MEP aspects of architecture complement and enhance the overall architectural design, resulting in cohesive and successful building projects.

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A spinner is divided into five colored sections that are not of equal size: red, blue, green, yellow, and purple. The spinner is spun several times, and the results are recorded below:
Spinner Results
Color Frequency
Red 16
Blue 19
Green 16
Yellow 7
Purple 19
If the spinner is spun 1900 more times, about how many times would you expect to land on purple? Round your answer to the nearest whole number.

Answers

From the given data, we can see that the spinner was spun a total of 16 + 19 + 16 + 7 + 19 = 77 times. Out of these 77 spins, it landed on purple 19 times. So, the experimental probability of landing on purple is 19/77.

If the spinner is spun 1900 more times, we would expect it to land on purple about (19/77) * 1900 = 466.23 times. Rounding to the nearest whole number, we get 466.

So, if the spinner is spun 1900 more times, we would expect it to land on purple about 466 times.

Define, compare and contrast terms saturated and unsaturated hydraulic conductivity and explain their importance in understanding movement of water in the ground.

Answers

Saturated hydraulic conductivity refers to the ease with which water moves through a saturated porous medium or soil at a specified temperature, whereas unsaturated hydraulic conductivity refers to the ease with which water moves through a partially saturated medium.

A hydraulic conductivity value can be used to describe the hydraulic properties of soil. Hydraulic conductivity values are influenced by soil porosity, structure, and composition, as well as water quality. Water infiltration is important because it has an impact on plant growth and groundwater recharge.

The unsaturated hydraulic conductivity of soils is essential for determining soil water flow and plant available water. The hydraulic conductivity of the soil is a crucial factor that affects the water movement and availability of plants in the soil, which is important for efficient irrigation planning.In contrast, the saturated hydraulic conductivity of soils affects groundwater recharge and pollutant transport. The hydraulic conductivity of the soil is important for the efficient management of surface and groundwater resources. Water moves through a saturated soil or subsurface medium at a rate proportional to the hydraulic gradient and the saturated hydraulic conductivity.Saturated and unsaturated hydraulic conductivity terms are related to each other.

Unsaturated hydraulic conductivity can be related to saturated hydraulic conductivity. However, these terms are not interchangeable, and they should be used carefully, taking into account their differences.

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write the complex number into polar form
z = 1 + sqrt 3i

Answers

Answer:

the polar form of z = 1 + √3i is 2(cos(π/3) + i * sin(π/3)).

Step-by-step explanation:

Archimedes principle describes which force acting on a body immersed in a fluid? Is it; The buoyancy force due to the weight of the displaced fluid O The normal force the buoyancy force due to the density of the fluid O The force due to the mass of the submerged body

Answers

Archimedes' principle describes the buoyancy force acting on a body immersed in a fluid. The correct option is "The buoyancy force due to the weight of the displaced fluid."

According to Archimedes' principle, when a body is partially or fully submerged in a fluid, it experiences an upward buoyant force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body.

This buoyant force acts in the opposite direction to gravity and is responsible for the apparent loss of weight experienced by the body in the fluid.

The principle can be stated mathematically as follows: The buoyant force (Fb) is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced (Wd). Symbolically, Fb = Wd.

Therefore, Archimedes' principle explains the buoyancy force exerted on a body submerged in a fluid, which is equal to the weight of the displaced fluid. This principle is fundamental in understanding the behavior of objects in fluids and has numerous applications in various fields, including engineering and physics.

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If a student estimated that the probability of correctly answering each question in a multiple-choice question is 85%, use the binomial tables to determine the probability of earning at least a 60% grade on a 15 -question exam. Click the icon to view the table of binomial probabilities. The probability of earning at least a 60% grade is (Round to four decimal places as needed.) Binomial Probabilities

Answers

The probability of earning at least a 60% grade on a 15-question exam is 0.0668.

In the given problem, the probability of correctly answering each question in a multiple-choice question is 85%. We want to determine the probability of earning at least a 60% grade on a 15 -question exam.

We can use binomial tables to solve this problem.

The binomial distribution is a discrete probability distribution that describes the number of successes in a fixed number of trials. Each trial has two possible outcomes: success or failure. In this problem, success means the student answers a question correctly.

The probability of success is p = 0.85, and the probability of failure is q = 1 - p = 0.15.

.Using binomial tables, we can find the probabilities for each of these cases and then add them up to get the total probability.

P(X ≥ 9)

[tex]= P(X = 9) + P(X = 10) + P(X = 11) + P(X = 12) + P(X = 13) + P(X = 14) + P(X = 15)P(X = 9) = C(15, 9) × 0.85⁹ × 0.15⁶ = 5005 × 0.3144 × 0.0028 = 4.415 × 10⁻²P(X = 10) = C(15, 10) × 0.85¹⁰ × 0.15⁵ = 3003 × 0.0563 × 0.0778[/tex]

[tex]= 1.322 × 10⁻²P(X = 11)[/tex]

= [tex]C(15, 11) × 0.85¹¹ × 0.15⁴[/tex]

= [tex]1365 × 0.0861 × 0.0184[/tex]

= 2.254 × 10⁻³P(X = 12)

=[tex]C(15, 12) × 0.85¹² × 0.15³[/tex]

= 455 × 0.1047 × 0.0371

= 1.800 × 10⁻⁴P(X = 13)

= C[tex](15, 13) × 0.85¹³ × 0.15²[/tex]

= [tex]105 × 0.1238 × 0.0551 = 9.214 × 10⁻⁶P(X = 14)[/tex]

= C(15, 14) × 0.85¹⁴ × 0.15

= 15 × 0.1384 × 0.15

[tex]= 3.104 × 10⁻⁷P(X = 15)[/tex]

=[tex]C(15, 15) × 0.85¹⁵ × 1 = 0.85¹⁵ = 1.018 × 10⁻⁸P(X ≥ 9)[/tex]

[tex]= 4.415 × 10⁻² + 1.322 × 10⁻² + 2.254 × 10⁻³ + 1.800 × 10⁻⁴ + 9.214 × 10⁻⁶ +[/tex][tex]3.104 × 10⁻⁷ + 1.018 × 10⁻⁸[/tex]

= 0.066841, rounded to four decimal places.

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A criterion for closed range of bounded operators (1+1=2 points) Consider Banach spaces X and Y as well as an operator TE L(X;Y). One says that T is bounded from below if there a constant c € (0, [infinity]) is such that Tay ≥c||||x for all x € X. (a) Prove that if T is bounded from below, then T has closed range. (b) Show that if T is injective and has closed range, then T is bounded from below.

Answers

We have proved that if T is injective and has closed range, then T is bounded from below.

Hence, this completes the proof of the statement.

(a) Prove that if T is bounded from below, then T has closed range.

We are given a Banach space X, Banach space Y, and a bounded linear operator TE L(X;Y).

T is bounded from below if there is a constant c € (0, [infinity]) such that Tay ≥ c|||x for all x € X.

Let's prove that if T is bounded from below, then T has a closed range.

Suppose {Txn} is a sequence in the range of T, i.e., Txn → y for some y € Y.

We need to prove that y € T(X). Since Txn → y, then |||y − Txn||| → 0.

By definition of bounded from below, there exists a constant c such that |||Txn||| ≥ c|||xn||| for all n.

So |||y||| = lim|||y − Txn||| + lim|||Txn||| ≥ limc|||xn||| = c|||x|||.

Thus, y € T(X), and so T(X) is closed.

(b) Show that if T is injective and has closed range, then T is bounded from below.

We are given a Banach space X, Banach space Y, and a bounded linear operator TE L(X;Y).

We need to show that if T is injective and has a closed range, then T is bounded from below.

Suppose T is injective and has a closed range. Let {x_n} be a normalized sequence in X,

i.e., |||x_n||| = 1.

We need to prove that |||Tx_n||| ≥ c > 0 for some c independent of n.

Since T is injective, {Tx_n} is a sequence of nonzero vectors in Y.

Since T has a closed range, the sequence {Tx_n} has a convergent subsequence, say {Tx_{nk}} → y for some y € Y. Consider the sequence of operators S_k: X → Y, defined by S_kx = T(x_nk). Since {Tx_{nk}} → y, we have {S_k}x → y for each x € X.

By the Uniform Boundedness Theorem, {S_k} is bounded in norm, i.e., there exists M such that |||S_k||| ≤ M for all k. Thus, |||T(x_{nk})||| = |||S_kx_n||| ≤ M|||x_n||| ≤ M for all k.

Hence, |||Tx_n||| ≥ c > 0 for some c independent of n. Thus, T is bounded from below.

Therefore, we have proved that if T is injective and has closed range, then T is bounded from below.

Hence, this completes the proof of the statement.

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please help me i’d appreciate it so much:)


pIf a1
=
6 and an-2an-1 then find the value of a5.

Answers

The value of the fifth term (a₅) is 96.

How to calculate an arithmetic sequence?

In Mathematics and Geometry, the nth term of an arithmetic sequence can be calculated by using this equation:

aₙ =  a₁ + (n - 1)d

Where:

d represents the common difference.a₁ represents the first term of an arithmetic sequence.n represents the total number of terms.

Next, we would determine the value of the fifth term (a₅) as follows;

a₅ = -2a₅₋₁

a₅ = -2a₄

a₅ = -2 (-2a₄₋₁)

a₅ = 4a₃

a₅ = 4 (-2a₃₋₁)

a₅ = -8a₂

a₅ = -8 (-2a₂₋₁)

a₅ = 16 a₁

a₅ = 16 × 6

a₅ = 96

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A gas stream ( MW gas =28.8) containing 1.8% acetone is passed through a packed tower to remove 95% of acetone using pure water. The gas mass flux, G y
is 0.82 kg m −2
s −1
and the film volumetric mass transfer coefficients for the gas and liquid phases are k y
a=0.048 and k x
a=0.266kmolm −3
s −1
mol fraction respectively. If the water flow rate is 20% in excess of the minimum and the equilibrium relationship is y ∗
=2.53x calculate the following: (a) The actual water phase mass flux, G x
(b) The mole fraction of acetone in the exit water stream (c) K y
a,H 0y
,H y
and H x
(d) The height of the packing

Answers

a) The actual water phase mass flux, Gₓ is 0.148 kg m⁻²s⁻¹.

b) The mole fraction of acetone in the exit water stream is 0.000355.

c) The value of Hₓ, the height of the packing is 0.214 meters.

d) The height of the packing is 0.214 meters.

To solve this problem, we'll use the concept of mass transfer in a packed tower. Let's calculate the required values step by step:

(a) The actual water phase mass flux, Gₓ:

We know that Gᵧ is the gas phase mass flux, and the ratio of liquid to gas phase mass flux is given by Gₓ/Gᵧ = kᵧa / kₓa. Plugging in the given values, we have

Gₓ/0.82 = 0.048 / 0.266

Solving for Gₓ, we find Gₓ = 0.82 * (0.048 / 0.266) = 0.148 kg m⁻²s⁻¹.

(b) The mole fraction of acetone in the exit water stream:

Using the equilibrium relationship y* = 2.53x, we can relate the mole fractions of acetone in the gas phase (y) and liquid phase (x). Since we're removing 95% of acetone, the mole fraction of acetone in the exit gas stream is

0.018 * (1 - 0.95) = 0.0009

Using the equilibrium relationship, we find x = 0.0009 / 2.53 = 0.000355 for the exit water stream.

(c) Hₓ, the height of the packing:

Hₓ can be calculated using the formula Hₓ = (Gₓ / kₓa) * (y* - y). Substituting the known values, we have

Hₓ = (0.148 / 0.266) * (2.53 * 0.000355 - 0.0009) = 0.214 meters.

(d) The height of the packing:

The height of the packing is typically determined by factors such as desired separation efficiency, pressure drop, and other design considerations. In this case, we've only calculated Hₓ, which represents the height required for the given separation efficiency. Additional factors may need to be considered to determine the overall height of the packing in a practical design.

In summary, we've calculated the actual water phase mass flux, the mole fraction of acetone in the exit water stream, and the height of the packing required to achieve 95% removal of acetone. These values provide important insights for designing a packed tower for acetone removal using water as the solvent.

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a) What is the correct postfix expression of the given infix expression below (with single digit numbers)? (2+4*(3-9)*(8/6)) a. 2439-*86/" + O b. 2439-+*86/* O c. 2439-**86/+ O d. 2439-*+86/* b) Consider implementing heaps by using arrays, which one of the following array represents a heap? O a. [30,26,12,23,10,8] O b. (18,12,13,10,11,16] Oc. (30,26,12,13,10,18] O d. [8,12,13,14,11,16] c) Which of the following is wrong, after each iteration of quick sorting? O a. Elements in one specific (e.g. right) portion are larger than the selected pivot. O b. The selected pivot is already in the right position in the final sorting order. Oc. Elements in one specific (e.g. left) portion are smaller than the selected pivot. O d. None of the other answers d) Which of the following is used for time complexity analysis of algorithms? O a Counting the total number of all instructions O b. Counting the total number of key instructions None of the other answers O d. Measuring the actual time to run key instructions

Answers

a) The correct postfix expression of the given infix expression (2+4*(3-9)*(8/6)) is option a) 2439-*86/+. It represents the expression in postfix notation where the operators follow their operands.

b) The array [30,26,12,13,10,18] represents a heap. It satisfies the heap property, where the parent node is always greater (or smaller) than its child nodes, depending on whether it is a max-heap or min-heap.

c) After each iteration of quick sorting, option b) "The selected pivot is already in the right position in the final sorting order" is wrong.

Quick sorting involves selecting a pivot element and partitioning the array such that all elements less than the pivot are on one side, and all elements greater than the pivot are on the other side.

The pivot element itself may not be in its final sorted position after each iteration.

d) The correct answer for the method used for time complexity analysis of algorithms is option b) "Counting the total number of key instructions." Time complexity analysis focuses on determining the efficiency of an algorithm by measuring the growth rate of the number of key instructions, which are the most significant instructions that contribute to the overall running time of the algorithm.

Counting the total number of all instructions may not accurately reflect the actual performance of the algorithm, and measuring the actual time to run key instructions may vary depending on the hardware and system conditions.

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Heat generation occurs at a uniform volumetric rate in a 5 cm diameter cylinder having a thermal conductivity of 12 W/m °C. If the radial temperature distribution in the cylinder at steady state is given as: T = 313.021 - 2.083 x 104,2 (T is in °C, and r in metres), determine (i) the surface and centreline temperatures of the cylinder, (ii) the volumetric rate of heat generation, and (iii) the average temperature of the cylinder. (Hint: Compare the given temperature distribution with Eq. (2.41) to calculate yo

Answers

(i) The surface temperature of the cylinder can be found by substituting r = 0.025 m (half of the diameter) into the given temperature distribution equation. The centreline temperature can be found by substituting r = 0.

(ii) To calculate the volumetric rate of heat generation, we need to find the gradient of the temperature distribution with respect to r (dT/dr). This can be done by taking the derivative of the temperature distribution equation with respect to r.

(iii) The average temperature of the cylinder can be found by integrating the temperature distribution equation over the entire volume of the cylinder and then dividing by the volume.

Explanation:

To solve this integral, we need the limits of integration (r_min and r_max) and the length of the cylinder (L). Without this information, we cannot provide an exact calculation for the average temperature.

Please note that for more accurate calculations, specific values for the length of the cylinder and the integration limits are required.

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Question-02: Show that pressure at a point is the same in all directions.Question-03: The space between two square flat parallel plates is filled with oil. Each side of the plate is 60 cm. The thickness of the oil film is 12.5 mm. The upper plate, which moves at 2.5 meter per sec requires a force of 98.1 N to maintain the speed. Apply Newton's law of viscosity to determine a) The dynamic viscosity of the oil in poise and b) The kinematic viscosity of the oil in stokes if the Specific gravity of oil is 0.95.

Answers

2. The pressure at a point in a fluid is the same in all directions.

3. The dynamic viscosity of the oil is 0.0287 poise, and the kinematic viscosity of the oil is 3.02 × 10⁻⁵ stokes.

2: Pressure at a point is the same in all directions

The pressure at a point is the same in all directions, meaning that the pressure applied to a surface is perpendicular to the surface, but the pressure applied to a liquid in a container is the same at all points.

The force applied on the liquid is proportional to the pressure exerted on the surface.

The reason the pressure is the same in all directions is due to the molecules in the fluid transferring force equally throughout the fluid.

The pressure at a point in a fluid is the same in all directions.

3: Calculation of dynamic viscosity and kinematic viscosity of oil

The given variables are:

Side of plate = 60 cm

= 0.60 m

Thickness of oil film = 12.5 mm

= 0.0125 m

Velocity of upper plate = 2.5 m/s

Force applied to maintain the speed = 98.1 N

Specific gravity of oil = 0.95

Using Newton's law of viscosity, we can write that the force required to move the fluid in between the plates,

F is given by:

F = A(η(dv/dy))

where,

A is the area of the plateη is the viscosity of the fluid,

dv/dy is the velocity gradient

As the distance between the plates,

d is much smaller than the length and breadth of the plate,

we can assume that the flow is laminar.

In laminar flow, dv/dy = v/d

Where, v is the velocity of the oil, and

d is the thickness of the oil film.

Substituting the given values in the formula and solving for dynamic viscosity,

we get

η = Fd² / (8Av)η

= 98.1 × 0.0125² / (8 × 0.6 × 0.60 × 2.5)η

= 0.0287 poise

The density of oil is given by 0.95 × 1000 kg/m³

= 950 kg/m³.

The kinematic viscosity of oil can be calculated as:

ν = η / ρν

= 0.0287 / 950ν

= 3.02 × 10⁻⁵ stokes

Therefore, the dynamic viscosity of the oil is 0.0287 poise, and the kinematic viscosity of the oil is 3.02 × 10⁻⁵ stokes.

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Given Q=10L 0.75
K 0.5
,w=5,r=4 and cost constraint =60, find the values of L and K using the Lagrange method which maximize the output for the firm

Answers

The optimal values of L and K that maximize output while satisfying the cost constraint are L = 10/3 and K = 10.

Q = 10L⁰.⁷⁵K⁰.⁵, w = 5, r = 4, and the cost constraint = 60, we have to find the values of L and K using the Lagrange method which maximizes the output for the firm.

Let's formulate the Lagrange equation:

For Q = 10L⁰.⁷⁵K⁰.⁵, we have that the marginal products are

MPL = ∂Q/∂L = 7.5K⁰.⁵L⁻.²⁵ and

MPK = ∂Q/∂K = 5L⁰.⁷⁵K⁻.⁵.

The Lagrange function to maximize Q subject to the cost constraint is: L(K, λ) = 10L⁰.⁷⁵K⁰.⁵ + λ[60 - 5L - 4K]

Differentiate L(K, λ) w.r.t. L, K, and λ and set them to zero:

∂L(K, λ)/∂L = 7.5K⁰.⁵L⁻.²⁵ - 5λ = 0  ...........(1)

∂L(K, λ)/∂K = 5L⁰.⁷⁵K⁻.⁵ - 4λ = 0 ...........(2)

∂L(K, λ)/∂λ = 60 - 5L - 4K = 0 ...........(3)

From (1), we get:λ = 1.5K⁰.⁵L⁰.²⁵ .........(4)

Substituting (4) in (2), we get:

5L⁰.⁷⁵K⁻.⁵ - 6K⁰.⁵L⁰.²⁵ = 0  

=> 5L⁰.⁷⁵K⁻.⁵ = 6K⁰.⁵L⁰.²⁵K/L = (5/6) L⁰.⁵/(0.5)K⁰.⁵

=> L/K = (5/6) (2) = 5/3

Now from (3), we have: 60 = 5L + 4K

Substituting L/K = 5/3 in the above equation, we get:

60 = 5 (5/3) K + 4K

Simplifying this equation, we get:

K = 6L = 10K = 10

From the above solutions, we can conclude that the values of L and K using the Lagrange method which maximizes the output for the firm are:

L = 5K/3 = 10/3 and K = 10.

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direction. The number b varies directly with the number a. For example b = 22 when a = -
On a number line, a number, b, is located the same distance from 0 as another number, a, but in the opposite
=-2² Which equation
represents this direct variation between a and b?
- b=-a
-b=-a
b-a=0
b(-a)= 0

Answers

The equation that represents the direct variation between a and b is b = 5.5a.

This means that if a increases by 1, b will increase by 5.5, and if a decreases by 1, b will decrease by 5.5.

The question above is asking for an equation that represents a direct variation relationship between two variables. Direct variation is a relationship between two variables where they have a constant ratio.

This means that if one variable increases, the other variable will increase proportionally, and if one variable decreases, the other variable will decrease proportionally. In this case, the number b varies directly with the number a and is represented by the equation b = ka, where k is the constant of proportionality.

To solve the problem above, we need to find the value of k using the given values of a and b. We are given that b = 22 when a = -2².

We can substitute these values into the equation b = ka to get: 22 = k(-2²).

Simplifying the right side gives 22 = 4k. We can solve for k by dividing both sides by 4, which gives k = 22/4 = 5.5.

Therefore, the equation that represents the direct variation between a and b is b = 5.5a.

This means that if a increases by 1, b will increase by 5.5, and if a decreases by 1, b will decrease by 5.5.

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The probable question may be:

Which equation represents this direct variation between a and b?

A. -b = -a

B. -b = a

C. b - a = 0

D. b(-a) = 0

Which of the following best describes the relationship between absolute convergence and convergence of improper integrals? Convergence implies absolute convergence. Absolute convergence implies convergence. They are equivalent. None of the above.

Answers

The correct answer is: Absolute convergence implies convergence.

Absolute convergence is a stronger condition than convergence for improper integrals.

When we talk about convergence of an improper integral, we mean that the integral exists and has a finite value. This means that the limit of the integral as the limits of integration approach certain values is finite.

On the other hand, absolute convergence refers to the convergence of the absolute value of the integrand. In other words, for an improper integral to be absolutely convergent, the integral of the absolute value of the function must converge.

It can be shown that if an improper integral is absolutely convergent, then it is also convergent. This means that if the integral of the absolute value of the function converges, then the integral of the function itself converges as well.

However, the converse is not necessarily true. Convergence of an improper integral does not imply absolute convergence. There are cases where the integral of the function converges, but the integral of the absolute value of the function diverges.

Therefore, the relationship between absolute convergence and convergence of improper integrals is that absolute convergence implies convergence, but convergence does not necessarily imply absolute convergence.

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I need help pleaseeee

Answers

Answer:

No Solutions: 7x + 3

One Solution: 6x + 3

Infinitely Many Solutions: 7x + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the given equations and the conditions provided, let's determine the fill-in values for each case:

No Solutions:

5 - 4 + 7x + 1 = x +

To have no solutions, the lines should be parallel. So, we can fill in any numbers that satisfy the condition:

5 - 4 + 7x + 1 = 7x + 3, where the fill-ins are 7x + 3.

One Solution:

5 - 4 + 7x + 1 = x +

To have exactly one solution, the lines should not be parallel or coincide. So, we can fill in any numbers that satisfy the condition:

5 - 4 + 7x + 1 = 6x + 3, where the fill-ins are 6x + 3.

Infinitely Many Solutions:

5 - 4 + 7x + 1 = x +

To have infinitely many solutions, the equation should be in the form of Ax + By + C = (7x + 5y + 1) x n, where n is an integer. So, we can fill in any numbers that satisfy the condition:

5 - 4 + 7x + 1 = 7x + 2, where the fill-ins are 7x + 2.

Therefore, the fill-in values for each case are:

No Solutions: 7x + 3

One Solution: 6x + 3

Infinitely Many Solutions: 7x + 2

Draw a labelled sketch of a Michelson interferometer including
brief explanations of the role of each component. Comment on the
position of the sample.
(THE ANSWERS ALREADY THERE ARE INCORRECT)

Answers

The position of  depends on the specific experiment or measurement being performed. The sample is placed in the path of one of the beams, between the beam splitter and mirror M2. This allows the sample to interact with one of the beams, causing a phase shift or other effects that  observed in the interference pattern.

A Michelson interferometer is an optical instrument used to measure small changes in the position of mirrors, the refractive index of gases, or the wavelength of light. It consists of the following components:

Laser Source: The laser emits a coherent beam of light with a single wavelength. It provides a stable and monochromatic light source for the interferometer.

Beam Splitter: The beam splitter is a partially reflecting mirror that splits the incoming laser beam into two equal parts. It reflects a portion of the light towards mirror M1 and transmits the remaining portion towards mirror M2.

Mirror M1: Mirror M1 reflects the incoming light from the beam splitter back towards the beam splitter. This mirror moved along the optical path, allowing for the introduction of a sample or the measurement of small changes.

Mirror M2: Mirror M2 is positioned perpendicular to the path of the transmitted light from the beam splitter. It reflects the light towards the beam splitter again.

Sample: The sample is placed in the path of one of the beams, typically between the beam splitter and mirror M2. It a gas cell, a transparent material, or any object that you want to study using interferometry.

Detector: The two beams recombine at the beam splitter, and the interference pattern is formed. The detector, such as a screen or a photodetector, measures the intensity of the combined beams.

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define the term value management according to the instituition of
civil engineers guide.

Answers

Value management is a proactive, systematic approach to identifying and achieving value in projects. It involves defining client values, evaluating alternatives, recommending the best approach, and implementing the chosen solution. This collaborative approach ensures timely, budget-friendly, and client satisfaction.

Value management is a methodical and organized approach to the identification and accomplishment of value. It is a proactive, problem-solving process that starts by defining the client's values, looking for alternative ways to achieve those values, and then recommending the best approach.

According to the Institution of Civil Engineers (ICE) guide, value management can be defined as "a structured approach to identifying better ways to achieve the required outcomes while optimizing the balance of benefits, costs, risks and other factors to meet the stakeholders’ needs."Value management is often employed during the design stage of a project, with the objective of optimizing the outcome and minimizing the cost. It is based on the idea of maximizing value rather than minimizing costs.

To achieve this, the value management process involves various steps, including identifying the client's values, evaluating alternative ways to achieve those values, recommending the best approach, and implementing the chosen solution. The process involves brainstorming and teamwork to create a collaborative approach that ensures the best possible outcome. It is, therefore, a critical tool for ensuring that projects are delivered on time, within budget, and to the client's satisfaction.

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You want to determine the area of ​​a watershed (in m2) on a map with a scale of 1:10,000. The average reading on the planimeter is 6.60 revolutions for the basin. To calibrate the planimeter, a rectangle with dimensions of 5cm x 5cm is drawn, where it is traced with the planimeter and the reading on it is 0.568 revolutions. Note: Escalation is offered for a reason.

Answers

We determine the area of a watershed on a map with a scale of 1:10,000 is approximately 0.029046 square meters.

To determine the area of a watershed on a map with a scale of 1:10,000, we can use the planimeter readings and the calibration rectangle.

First, we need to calculate the area of the calibration rectangle. The dimensions of the rectangle are 5cm x 5cm. Since the reading on the planimeter for the rectangle is 0.568 revolutions, we can assume that 0.568 revolutions corresponds to 25 square centimeters (5cm x 5cm).

Next, we can calculate the conversion factor by dividing the area of the calibration rectangle by the corresponding planimeter reading. The conversion factor is 25 square centimeters divided by 0.568 revolutions, which is approximately 44.01 square centimeters per revolution.

Now, we can use the average reading on the planimeter for the watershed, which is 6.60 revolutions. Multiply the average reading by the conversion factor to obtain the area of the watershed in square centimeters:

6.60 revolutions * 44.01 square centimeters per revolution = 290.46 square centimeters.

Finally, convert the area from square centimeters to square meters. Since there are 10,000 square centimeters in a square meter, divide the area in square centimeters by 10,000 to get the area in square meters. Therefore, the area of the watershed is approximately 0.029046 square meters.

In summary, the area of the watershed on the map is approximately 0.029046 square meters.

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20. An azimuth observation was taken on Polaris at eastern elongation. The instrument is then turned clockwise and sighted on point B with the horizontal angle of 110^{\circ} 30^{\prime} 50^{\prime

Answers

The true bearing of AB is N 85°20'10''. Therefore, the correct answer is option a) N 29°31' E.

To determine the true bearing of AB, we need to follow a step-by-step process.

Step 1: Convert the given latitude and declination into decimal degrees.
The latitude of the station occupied at A is given as 25°10'40''. To convert this to decimal degrees, we need to divide the minutes and seconds by 60. So, the latitude in decimal degrees is 25 + (10/60) + (40/3600) = 25.1778°.

The declination of Polaris is given as 89°05'50''. Converting this to decimal degrees, we have 89 + (5/60) + (50/3600) = 89.0972°.

Step 2: Determine the hour angle of Polaris.
The hour angle of Polaris can be calculated by subtracting the azimuth observation from 90° (since Polaris is at the eastern elongation). So, the hour angle is 90° - 110°30'50'' = -20°30'50''.

Step 3: Convert the hour angle to decimal degrees.
To convert the hour angle to decimal degrees, we need to multiply the minutes and seconds by 15 (since there are 60 minutes in a degree and 60 seconds in a minute, and 15 degrees per hour). So, the hour angle in decimal degrees is -20 - (30/60) - (50/3600) = -20.514°.

Step 4: Determine the azimuth from A to B.
The azimuth from A to B can be calculated by adding the hour angle to the latitude. So, the azimuth is 25.1778° + (-20.514°) = 4.6638°.

Step 5: Convert the azimuth to a true bearing.
Since the azimuth is positive, the true bearing is in the northeastern direction. To convert the azimuth to a true bearing, we subtract it from 90°. So, the true bearing is 90° - 4.6638° = 85.3362°.

Step 6: Convert the true bearing to degrees, minutes, and seconds.
The true bearing in decimal degrees is 85.3362°. To convert this to degrees, minutes, and seconds, we can use the fact that there are 60 minutes in a degree and 60 seconds in a minute. Therefore, the true bearing is N 85°20'10''.

In conclusion, the true bearing of AB is N 85°20'10''. Therefore, the correct answer is option a) N 29°31' E.

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Only people with a doctorate can author journal articles The journal editor reviews and accepts all content before publication All articles must be assessed and recommended by a review board or jury of scholars prior to p O Authors must pay the journal QUESTION 9 Per the CCU CAGS Student Handbook, what is the consequence for a first violation of the Academic The student is allowed to fix and resubmit the assignment. The student receives a 0 for the assignment. The student fails the course. The student is suspended from the university. QUESTION 10 4 CCU students have access to which of the following resources? O The Clifton Fowler Online Library Online databases hosting scholarly journals Personally scheduled meeting with a library known as "Book a Librarian O Interlibrary loan services for items within the world catalog Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers. 1. Suppose that a university wants to show off how politically correct it is by applying the U.S. Supreme Court's "Separate but equal is inherently unequal" doctrine to gender as well as race, ending its long-standing practice of gender-segregated bathrooms on cam- pus. However, as a concession to tradition, it decrees that when a woman is in a bath- a room, other women may enter, but no men, and vice versa. A sign with a sliding marker on the door of each bathroom indicates which of three possible states it is currently in: Empty Women present Men present In pseudocode, write the following procedures: woman_wants_to_enter, man_wants_to_enter, woman_leaves, man_leaves. You may use whatever counters and synchronization techniques you like. Categorize the studies as either Revealed Preference or Stated Preference. (Hint: each study belongs to one category) An RLC series circuit has a current which lags the applied voltage by 45. The voltage across the inductance has maximum value equal to twice the maximum value of voltage across the capacitor. Voltage across the inductance is 3000 sin (1000t) and R=2092. Find the value of inductance and capacitance. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of aircraft electrical & electronic system failure? Use of sealants Fullscreen Snip Dust Salt ingress Multiple metals in contact Mango Company applies overhead based on direct labor costs. For the current year, Mango Company estimated total overhead costs to be $400,000, and direct labor costs to be $200,000. Actual overhead costs for the year totaled $425,000, and actual direct labor costs totaled $226,000. At year-end, Factory Overhead account is: Multiple Choice Overapplied by $27,000 Overapplied by $226,000 Underapplied by $27,000. Overapplied by $26,000. Neither overapplied nor underapplied 19000 127% 4 % 7 4 Explain when you would use the break and continue statements. Extra Credit: provide valid examples of each. Use the editor to format your answer Lateral magnification by the objective of a simple compound microscope is. m 1=10. Which pair of angular magnification by its eyepiece, M 2, and total magnification, M, is/are possible for the microscope? 14. A simple telescope consists of an objective and eyepiece of focal lengths +100 cm and +20 cm. Which of the following is/are TRUE about the telescope? A. The telescope length is 1.2 m. B. The power of the objective is +1.0D C. The final image formed by the telescope is virtual. 15. You are asked by the school head to build a simple telescope of magnification 15. Which pair of lens combinations is/are suitable for the telescope? 16. The distance between point N from coherent sources M and O are and 3 21, respectively. Points M,N and O lie in a straight line. Point N is located between M and O. Which is/are true statement(s) about the situation. A. Point N is an antinode point. B. The path length between source M and O is 4 21. C. The path difference between sources M and O at point N is 2 21 17. A bubble seems to be colourful when shone with white light. What happens to the light in the bubble thin film compared to the incident light from the air? A. The light is slower in the thin film. B. The wavelength of the light is shorter in the film. C. The frequency of the light does not change in the film. 18. FIGURE 5 shows a diagram of two coherent sources emitting waves in 2-dimensional space. Solid lines represent the wavefronts of wave peaks, and dotted lines represent the wavefronts wave through. Select the thick line(s) representing the nodal line(s). 19. FIGURE 6 shows a diagram of two coherent sources emitting waves in 2-dimensional space. Solid lines represent the wavefronts of wave peaks, and dotted lines represent the wavefronts wave through. 20. A part of a static bubble in the air momentarily looks reddish under the white light illumination. Given that the refractive index of the bubble is 1.34 and the red light wavelength is 680 nm, what is/are the possible bubble thickness? A. 130 nm B. 180 nm C. 630 nm 21. A thin layer of kerosene (n=1.39) is formed on a wet road (n=1.33). If the film thickness is 180 nm, what is/are the possible visible light seen on the layer? A. 460 nm B. 700 nm C. 1400 nm 22. 400 nm blue light passes through a diffraction grating. The first order bright fringe is located at 10 mm from the central bright. Which of the following is/are true about the situation? A. The width of the bright fringe is 10 cm. B. The distance between consecutive bright fringe is 10 cm. C. The distance between the light source and the screen is 10 cm. 23. In Young's double slits experiment, A. the slits refract light. B. the wavelength of the light source increases and decreases alternatively. C. the width of the central bright is inversely proportional to the distance between slits. 24. A beam of monochromatic light is diffracted by a slit of width 0.45 mm. The diffraction pattern forms on a wall 1.5 m beyond the slit. The width of the central maximum is 2.0 mm. Which of the following is/are TRUE about the experiment? A. The wavelength of the light is 600 nm. B. The width of each bright fringe is 2.0 mm C. The distance between dark fringes is 1.0 mm Devi conducted a light diffraction experiment using a red light. She got the diffraction pattern as shown in FIGURE 7. The distance between indicated dark fringes was measured as 2.5 mm. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE about the experiment? A. She used diffraction grating to get the pattern. B. The width of the central maximum was 2.5 mm. C. The distance between consecutive bright fringes was 2.5 mm. The light beam shown in the figure below makes an angle of a =20.2 with the normal line NN in the linseed oll. Determine the anale . (The refractive index for linseed oll is 1.48.) Determine the largest interval in which the given initial value problem is certain to have a unique twice-differentiable solution. Do not attempt to find the solution. Interval: dx dt sin(t)- dx d Complete the point of view writing assignment that follows.How do you think the different characters felt at the end of the story?What point of view has the story been in so far?What if the poem was written from Grendel's point of view?What if the poem was written from Hrothgars point of view?What if the poem was written from Beowulfs point of view? Susan will receive a payment of $3,000 in 2 years, $8,000 in 5 years, and $10,000 in 7 years. The annual force of interest is 7%. Calculate the nrecent valiue of the navmente Question 4.11 David can receive one of the following two payment streams: (i) 100 at time 0,200 at time n years, and 300 at time 2n years (ii) 600 at time n years The present values of the two payment streams are equal. You are given that the annual force of interest is 12.21%. Calculate n. A 8.0 B 8.5 C 9.0 D 9.5 Question 4.14 Suzie deposits $200 into an account that earns an annual simple interest rate of 5%. At the same time, John deposits $220 into an account that earns a constant force of interest of . After 5 years, the value in each account is the same. Calculate . A 2.56% B 2.59% C 2.65% D 2.73% E 2.97% Calculate the power in Watts) in one sideband of an AM signal whose carrier power is 86 Watts. The unmodulated current is 1.52 A while the modulated current is 1.75 A. No need for a solution. Just write your numeric answer in the space provided. Round off your answer to 2 decimal places. What are two open-ended questions that could be asked about this passage?1. Socrates: "Now, if they could speak, would you say that these captives would imagine that the names they gave to the things they were able to see applied to real things?" You have a circular loop of wire in the plane of the page with initial radius 1.0 m which shrinks to a radius of 1 m. It sits in a constant magnetic field B = 10T pointing into the page. Assume the transformation occurs over 10 seconds and no part of the wire exits the field. Also assume an internal resistance of 30 . What average current is produced within the loop and in which direction?a. 79 mA, CWb. 79 mA, CCWc. 701 mA, CCWd. Zero Discuss the social construction of both sex and gender. Begin by discussing how we know that sex and gender are two different concepts. Make sure to discuss the concepts and examples that we discussed in class Programmers can understand and maintain the web page code moreeasily if everything in the body container is plain textTrue or False