the term used to describe the organization of training into phases or periods that allows for optimal rest and recovery is .

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Answer 1

The term used to describe the organization of training into phases or periods that allows for optimal rest and recovery is "periodization".

Periodization is the systematic planning of athletic or physical training. It involves the on-going manipulation of training variables such as intensity, volume, and duration in order to maximize performance gains over time. The term used to describe the organization of training into phases or periods that allows for optimal rest and recovery is Periodization.

Periodization refers to the organization of training into distinct phases or periods to ensure optimal rest and recovery. This method is used by athletes to plan and structure their training program by incorporating training cycles and recovery periods. Periodization is primarily based on the concept of physiological adaptation, where the body adapts to the demands of the exercise. By following a periodized training program, athletes can prevent overtraining and injuries while improving their performance.

A periodized training program typically consists of three main phases: the preparatory phase, the competition phase, and the transition phase. During the preparatory phase, athletes focus on building a foundation of strength, power, and endurance. In the competition phase, the focus shifts to refining skills and peaking for competition. Finally, the transition phase allows for recovery and rest before starting the next cycle of training.

Thus, periodization is a crucial concept in sports training that helps athletes organize their training into phases or periods to ensure optimal rest and recovery.

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Related Questions

what term describes an employee who is training to be culturally competent and live in diverse markets?

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"Global citizen" is the term used to describe a worker who is receiving training to be culturally competent and to live in varied marketplaces.

Simply put, what is cultural competence?

Being culturally competent entails understanding how your own cultural ideas and values may differ from those of other people, as well as being able to respect and learn about the various cultural backgrounds of individuals you deal with.

What exactly is global cultural citizenship?

The term "global citizenship" refers to the social, environmental, and economic behaviors of individuals and communities that are aware that everyone is a member of the global community. It is about how decisions made in one area of the world can have an impact on individuals living in another area.

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when healthy choice positions its products as more nutritional than italian sub sandwiches and prepared salads, which type of positioning is it using?

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When Healthy Choice positions its products as more nutritional than Italian sub sandwiches and prepared salads, it is using the nutritional positioning.

What is nutritional positioning?Nutritional positioning is a strategy in which a business emphasizes the health and nutritional benefits of its products over others. Companies, like Healthy Choice, often advertise their products as containing fewer calories, less fat, or fewer carbohydrates than competing products. This positioning aims to appeal to health-conscious consumers or those who are dieting.Healthy Choice is positioning itself as being more nutritious than its competitors by emphasizing its products' low-calorie and low-fat content. As a result, consumers who are interested in eating healthy foods are more likely to choose Healthy Choice over Italian sub sandwiches and prepared salads, which they perceive as less healthy or less nutritious than Healthy Choice products.

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If the money supply in an economy is increased by 5%, the velocity of money is constant, and output is growing at 3%, then
a) the real GDP will increase by 5%
b) the price level will not change
c) the nominal GDP will increase by 3%
d) the price level will increase by 2%
e) the nominal GDP will decrease by 5%

Answers

If the money supply in an economy is increased by 5%, the velocity of money is constant, and output is growing at 3%, then the price level will increase by 2%. The correct answer is option d.

1. According to the Quantity Theory of Money, we have the equation: M x V = P x Y, where M is the money supply, V is the velocity of money, P is the price level, and Y is the real output (GDP).

2. Since the velocity of money is constant, we can focus on the changes in M, P, and Y.

3. Given the money supply (M) increases by 5% and real output (Y) grows by 3%, we can write this equation: (1.05M) x V = P' x (1.03Y).

4. Since V is constant, we can divide both sides of the equation by V: 1.05M = P' x (1.03Y).

5. Next, divide both sides of the original equation (M x V = P x Y) by V: M = P x Y.

6. Now, divide the modified equation

(1.05M = P' x (1.03Y)) by the simplified original equation (M = P x Y): 1.05 = (P'/P) x 1.03.

7. Solve for P'/P (the percentage change in the price level):

P'/P = 1.05 / 1.03 ≈ 1.02.

8. Convert this ratio to a percentage increase: (1.02 - 1) x 100% = 2%.

So, the price level will increase by 2%. Therefore option d is correct.

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an investor receives dividends from its investee and records those dividends as dividend income because:

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An investor receives dividends from its investee and records those dividends as dividend income because dividends are a return on investment for shareholders.

Dividend income is recognized when the investor's right to receive the dividends is established, which generally occurs when the dividend is declared by the company.

The investor must ensure that dividends received are accurately recorded. This involves verifying the amount of the dividend, as well as the date on which the dividend was declared and received.

The investor should also make sure that any tax implications related to the dividend have been taken into account.

Once the dividend is declared and received, the investor must record the dividend income in the company’s financial statements.

This includes recording the amount of the dividend, the date on which the dividend was declared, and the date on which the dividend was received. The investor must also record any tax implications associated with the dividend income.

Once the dividend income is recorded, the investor can track and report on the dividend-related income, gains, and losses. The investor should also report any changes in the amount of the dividend income over time, as well as any changes in the dividend policies of the company.

By tracking and reporting on dividend-related income, gains, and losses, the investor can accurately assess their return on investment.

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when evaluating capital expenditure proposals, management planning must involve the allocation of available financial resources for projects that promise to reap returns in the future. this applies only to for-profit organizations, as not-for-profit organizations do not have to be concerned about such issues true false

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When evaluating capital expenditure proposals, management planning must involve the allocation of available financial resources for projects that promise to reap returns in the future. This applies only to for-profit organizations, as not-for-profit organizations do not have to be concerned about such issues. The statement is false.

This is because not-for-profit organizations also require some level of financial planning and allocation of resources in order to meet their objectives. These organizations may not focus primarily on profit-making activities, but they still need to plan for the financial resources necessary to achieve their goals.

Therefore, management planning should involve the allocation of available financial resources for projects that promise to reap returns in the future, regardless of whether the organization is for-profit or not-for-profit.

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Which of the following is NOT a type of financial market?
A. Bond Market
B.Commodities Market
C.Stock Market
D. Capital Market

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Bond Market because it’s a Bond market

11. uncle robbie, who lives in kenner, louisiana, bought a treasury bond on the secondary market that has 10 years until maturity and a 2% coupon payment, paid semi-annually. which of the following risks is he subject to? a. financial risk b. exchange rate risk c. default risk d. reinvestment rate risk

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Uncle Robbie, who lives in Kenner, Louisiana, bought a treasury bond on the secondary market that has 10 years until maturity and a 2% coupon payment, paid semi-annually. The risk he is subject to is reinvestment rate risk. Option D is correct.

Reinvestment risk is the risk that future cash flows may not be reinvested at the same interest rate as the original investment. The reinvestment rate risk is a type of interest rate risk that arises from the need to reinvest the proceeds of a bond, rather than holding it to maturity.

To understand the reinvestment rate risk, consider a bond with a ten-year maturity and a 6% yield. Assume that the investor bought the bond for $1,000 and holds it for the entire ten years. The investor receives $60 each year in interest (6% of $1,000). If he or she intends to invest $60 in new security, the reinvestment rate will be determined by the interest rate offered in the market at that time. This means that the investor's reinvestment rate risk is directly proportional to the maturity of the bond. So, uncle Robbie is subject to reinvestment rate risk.

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in budgeting, variance is: group of answer choices a measure of the degree of dispersion of a distribution about its mean value. the difference between a realized value and a budgeted, or standard, value. the percentage decrease in volume that can occur without causing the organization to lose money. the difference between operating profit and total profit. the difference between total revenues and total costs.

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In budgeting, variance is the difference between a realized value and a budgeted, or standard, value (option B).

In the context of budgeting, variance is the difference between a budgeted, or standard, value and a realized value. The variance is a quantitative measure of the degree of deviation between budgeted or expected outcomes and actual outcomes of a situation, process, or event. It is the numerical representation of how far apart actual performance or results are from the expected or budgeted performance or results.

Variance is calculated as the difference between an actual value and the standard or budgeted value. In other words, variance is a measure of the degree of dispersion of a distribution about its mean value.

Dispersion measures in budgeting: Dispersion measures are essential components of budgeting. Budgets serve as a guide for the allocation and use of resources to achieve the goals of an organization. Dispersion measures, such as variance, help management to understand how actual results compare to budgeted results, making it easier for them to plan and make decisions about resource allocation in the future.

Budgeting is a process of allocating scarce resources to various competing needs in an organization. By providing feedback on actual results and comparing them to budgeted results, dispersion measures such as variance assist managers in making better decisions about the allocation and use of resources.

Therefore, the difference between a realized value and a budgeted, or standard, value (option b) is variance.

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rue or false: as firms reach near maximum capacity at high levels of quantity supplied, supply becomes more elastic because firms may need to invest in additional capital in order to further increase production.

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As firms reach near maximum capacity at high levels of quantity supplied, supply becomes less elastic because firms may need to invest in additional capital in order to further increase production. is "false". It is because as a firm reaches maximum capacity,

it becomes increasingly difficult to produce more goods. This means that the supply of goods becomes less elastic and more inelastic as the firm reaches its maximum capacity.

This is because the firm is unable to increase production beyond a certain point without investing in additional capital.

Therefore, the statement "as firms reach near maximum capacity at high levels of quantity supplied, supply becomes more elastic because firms may need to invest in additional capital in order to further increase production" is incorrect.

The elasticity of supply depends on the availability of resources and the ease with which they can be acquired. If the resources required for production are readily available, then the supply will be more elastic.

On the other hand, if the resources are scarce or difficult to obtain, then the supply will be more inelastic. In conclusion, as firms reach maximum capacity, the supply of goods becomes less elastic and more inelastic. This is because the firm is unable to produce more goods without investing in additional capital.

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if a bystander is injured when a consumer is using a product, may the bystander bring a claim for negligence against the manufacturer of the product?

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Yes, a bystander may bring a claim for negligence against the manufacturer of the product if they were injured while the consumer was using the product.

To prove negligence, the bystander would need to show that the manufacturer owed them a duty of care, that the manufacturer breached that duty of care, and that the breach of duty resulted in their injury.

Bystander may bring a claim for negligence. This is due to the doctrine of strict liability.

The concept of strict liability is a legal doctrine that imposes liability on individuals, companies, and entities for damages caused by their actions or products, regardless of fault.

Therefore, if a bystander is injured when a consumer is using a product, the bystander may bring a claim for negligence against the manufacturer of the product because of the doctrine of strict liability.

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the liabilities section of the chart of accounts would include accrued liabilities and prepaid expense accounts. question content area bottom part 1 true false

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The given statement, "the liabilities section of the chart of accounts would include accrued liabilities and prepaid expense accounts" is true (T) because the liabilities section of the chart of accounts includes all accounts related to the company's obligations.


This including accrued liabilities and prepaid expense accounts that may be reclassified as liabilities.

The liabilities section of the chart of accounts typically includes all the accounts related to the company's obligations, including but not limited to accounts payable, accrued liabilities, notes payable, and deferred revenues. Prepaid expense accounts, on the other hand, are typically classified as assets since they represent payments made in advance for future expenses.

However, there may be cases where a prepaid expense is initially recorded as an asset and then reclassified to a liability account once the expense is incurred but not yet paid for.

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a commercial with exposition, conflict, rising suspense, climax, and resolution with product identification is also known as a

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A commercial with exposition, conflict, rising suspense, climax, and resolution with product identification is also known as a "storyboarded commercial.

A storyboarded commercial is an advertisement in which a visual sequence of sketches or pictures is used to illustrate the concept, content, and flow of the commercial. The sequence of pictures is presented in a series of frames, with each frame representing a particular scene or moment in the commercial. This type of commercial is frequently used in the movie and television industries to visualize the script before filming takes place. The storyboard is also used to establish the pacing and timing of the commercial. In summary, a storyboarded commercial is an advertisement that uses sketches or pictures to tell a story with exposition, conflict, rising suspense, climax, and resolution with product identification.

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a co-worker, who drives a new car, buys a 2nd home, and wears expensive jewelry is committing fraud. group of answer choices true false

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False. Simply owning a new car, buying a 2nd home, and wearing expensive jewelry does not directly indicate that a person is committing fraud.

It is not necessarily true that a co-worker who drives a new car buys a second home, and wears expensive jewelry is committing fraud. Without any additional information or evidence of illegal activity, such accusations are baseless and should not be made. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

What is fraud?

Fraud is a deliberate act of deception carried out for personal gain or profit. Fraud can be committed by individuals or organizations, and it can take many forms, including financial fraud, healthcare fraud, insurance fraud, and more. Fraudulent activities may involve lying, misrepresenting facts, concealing information, and other illegal activities designed to deceive or manipulate others to obtain money, goods, or services illegally. How to report fraud If you suspect fraud, there are several ways to report it, depending on the type of fraud and the circumstances involved. Some options include contacting the police, reporting it to the relevant regulatory authorities, or using an online reporting system. Additionally, some companies have fraud hotlines or other reporting mechanisms that employees can use to report suspicious activity.

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True or false: Core competencies should be continuously improved so that the firm can acquire or maintain a competitive advantage.

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true . if core competencies are not regularly improved, competitors might acquire core competencies that will lead to a competitive advantage

The given statement "Core competencies should be continuously improved so that the firm can acquire or maintain a competitive advantage" is true because a core competency is an area of expertise or skill that a company focuses on, excels at, and provides a unique advantage over competitors.

Companies with strong core competencies can leverage them to create products and services that are difficult for competitors to replicate. Core competencies are often difficult to replicate by competitors, which means that companies with strong core competencies can maintain a competitive advantage. The development of core competencies can lead to cost savings, improved efficiencies, and better customer satisfaction. This can result in an increased market share and increased profitability.

However, it is important for companies to continuously improve their core competencies to maintain their competitive advantage as competitors can always improve or develop their own core competencies. A company’s core competencies should align with its overall strategy and provide unique value to customers. Continuous improvement of core competencies requires a commitment to investing in research and development, training and development, and technology advancements. This investment can lead to new and improved products and services, improved processes, and better customer experiences.

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if coca-cola decides to no longer use their iconic polar bears in holiday season advertising and they ask employees to submit ideas for replacement mascots, this would be an example of .

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If Coca-Cola decides to no longer use their iconic polar bears in holiday season advertising and they ask employees to submit ideas for replacement mascots, this would be an example/sample of teamwork.

Teamwork is the collaboration of groups to achieve common goals or complete tasks in the most effective and efficient manner. This concept is seen in the larger context of a team, a group of interdependent people working together towards a common goal.

Her four key characteristics of a team include shared goals, interdependence, attachment and stability, the ability to manage one's work and internal processes, and the ability to operate within the larger social system.

A basic requirement for effective teamwork is the right team size. Context is important, and the size of your team depends on your goals. Teams must have at least 2 members and most team sizes range from 2 to 100.

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Complete question:

If Coca-Cola decides to no longer use their iconic polar bears in holiday season advertising and they ask employees to submit ideas for replacement mascots, this would be an example of _________

if your local coffee shop raised its coffee prices by the same amount (50 percent), would sales decline by more, less, or the same amount as calculated in part a?

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If the local coffee shop raised its coffee prices by 50%, then the sales would decline by more than the previously calculated amount in part a. Let's see why.

The price elasticity of demand refers to the extent to which the quantity demanded of a good changes when there is a change in its price. The demand for coffee is price elastic because a small change in price causes a larger change in the quantity demanded.

The magnitude of the change in quantity demanded depends on the extent of price elasticity. When the price of a good increases, the quantity demanded decreases.

The formula for price elasticity of demand is as follows: PED = % Change in Quantity Demanded / % Change in Price. Since the percentage change in price and quantity demanded is the same for a unitary elastic demand, price and quantity demanded will change by the same proportion.

For example, if the price of coffee increases by 50%, then the quantity demanded will also decrease by 50%.

This is not the case with price elastic demand, where the percentage change in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage change in price. If the price of coffee increases by 50%, the quantity demanded will decrease by more than 50%.

Therefore, the sales will decline by more than the previously calculated amount in part a. Therefore, the answer is LESS.

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in sport marketing, the process of dividing a large, heterogeneous market into homogeneous groups of people who have similar wants and needs or demographic profiles is called market

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In sports marketing, the process of dividing a large, heterogeneous market into homogeneous groups of people with similar wants and needs or demographic profiles is called market segmentation.

What is market segmentation? Market segmentation is grouping buyers into segments based on similarities in needs and wants. In marketing, this is known as market segmentation, a strategy firms use to divide a large, heterogeneous market into small, homogeneous groups of individuals who share similar needs or demographic characteristics.

This technique aids in the creation of a more targeted marketing campaign, which may lead to increased profits for the company.

In sports marketing, this approach may target particular demographics or interest groups, such as individuals interested in a specific sport or fitness activity, to help firms reach their target market more effectively.

Homogeneous groups: A homogeneous market is one in which all the individuals share similar characteristics, making it easier for firms to tailor their marketing messages to a specific group of individuals.Heterogeneous market: A heterogeneous market is one in which there is a large variety of buyers with different requirements, preferences, and characteristics, making it more challenging to target a specific group.

Sports marketing is concerned with meeting the specific needs of a particular market segment, whether homogeneous or heterogeneous, in order to develop a targeted marketing approach that is more likely to generate results.

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(9a) 1. which step in the stp process develops descriptions of the different segments, which helps firms better understand the customer profiles in each segment?

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The step in the STP process that develops descriptions of different segments and helps firms better understand customer profiles in each segment is the second step, which is Select Segmentation Method.

Selecting the right segmentation method is crucial to developing a clear understanding of customer groups, which helps firms create accurate and meaningful descriptions of each segment's characteristics, needs, and behaviors. This step is the foundation of the entire STP process since the selection of segmentation criteria affects all subsequent stages of the process, including targeting and positioning.

Without a clear understanding of customer profiles in each segment, it's challenging for firms to create targeted marketing strategies that resonate with the needs of their customers.

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harvey's team is developing standards in order to measure success and clarify who will be evaluating the results. they are in the stage of

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Harvey's team is developing standards in order to measure success and clarify who will be evaluating the results. They are in the stage of planning and strategizing.

Specifically in the phase of defining project objectives and identifying key performance indicators (KPIs). This phase typically occurs at the beginning of a project or initiative, where the team establishes goals and objectives and determines how success will be measured and evaluated.

By developing standards and identifying the individuals or teams responsible for evaluating the results, Harvey's team is setting a foundation for future progress and success.

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how much does performance task 1 (the irr and tmp) contribute to your overall college board ap seminar score?

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Performance Task 1 (The IRR and TMP) contributes 33% to your overall College Board AP Seminar score.

The AP Seminar program is an interdisciplinary approach to research and inquiry-based learning. AP Seminar's Performance Task 1 comprises two components: Individual Research Report (IRR) and Team Multimedia Presentation (TMP).Students must complete this task during the second semester of the course. It is worth 33% of their total AP Seminar score. The Individual Research Report (IRR) assesses students' ability to conduct independent research, which includes synthesizing information from multiple sources, building an argument based on evidence, and demonstrating academic integrity. Team Multimedia Presentation (TMP) assesses students' ability to work effectively with a team, communicate effectively, and develop a multimedia presentation.

Both tasks allow students to demonstrate their critical thinking and research skills, as well as their ability to work collaboratively with others. Performance Task 1 (The IRR and TMP) contributes 33% to your overall College Board AP Seminar score.

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disposable personal income is equal to personal income minus: answer unselected social security payments unselected personal tax payments unselected government transfer payments

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The formula for calculating the disposable personal income is obtained by subtracting social security payments, personal tax payments, and government transfer payments from personal income. Thus, the correct option is unselected government transfer payments.

Disposable personal income (DPI) is the amount of money that a household or an individual has to spend or save after paying taxes. In other words, it is the total amount of money available for households to spend or save after paying personal taxes and receiving transfer payments from the government, such as Social Security or welfare benefits. Disposable personal income (DPI) is determined by subtracting taxes and government transfer payments from personal income. The disposable personal income is an important economic indicator that shows how much money people have left over to spend on goods and services.

Thus, the formula for calculating the disposable personal income is obtained by subtracting social security payments, personal tax payments, and government transfer payments from personal income.

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if government set a maximum price of $45 in the market: group of answer choices a shortage of 21 units would arise. a surplus of 21 units would arise. a surplus of 40 units would arise. it would create neither a shortage nor a surplus.

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Setting a maximum price of $45 in the market could create a shortage of 21 units if the current market equilibrium price is higher than the maximum price set by the government. This is because setting the maximum price will reduce the quantity supplied by producers, resulting in a decrease in the total quantity supplied. At the same time, the demand for the good remains unchanged, so the decreased supply results in a shortage of the good.

If the current market equilibrium price is lower than the maximum price set by the government, then a surplus of 21 units would arise. This is because the setting of the maximum price will result in an increase in the quantity supplied by producers, leading to a total quantity supplied that is higher than the total quantity demanded. This will result in a surplus of the good.

If the maximum price set by the government is 40 units, then it would create neither a shortage nor a surplus. This is because the quantity supplied would equal the quantity demanded, resulting in a market equilibrium where the total quantity supplied is equal to the total quantity demanded.

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job 590 has a total cost of $28,500. it has been charged manufacturing overhead costs of $7100. therate is 75% of direct labor. what was the amount of direct materials charged to the job?

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The amount of direct materials charged to Job 590 was $18,900.

The total cost of Job 590 was $28,500, and $7,100 of this was charged to manufacturing overhead costs. As the manufacturing overhead rate is 75% of direct labor, this means that the amount of direct materials charged to the job can be calculated by subtracting the manufacturing overhead cost from the total cost and then dividing that result by the overhead rate.

Mathematically, this can be expressed as:

Direct Materials Cost = (Total Cost - Manufacturing Overhead Cost) / (Manufacturing Overhead Rate)

Plugging in the given values:

Direct Materials Cost = ($28,500 - $7,100) / 0.75

Direct Materials Cost = $18,900


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after acquiring two new foreign affiliates, henson manufacturing created a new organizational chart to indicate where formal authority would lie within the organization. this organizational chart is an indication of

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The organizational chart created by Henson Manufacturing after acquiring two new foreign affiliates is an indication of their hierarchical structure.

This hierarchical structure shows who has the formal authority within the organization, who has power and influence over decision making, and who holds responsibility for various tasks and activities.

The top level of the hierarchical structure indicates the company’s highest-ranking executives, such as the CEO and executive board. These executives have the most formal authority within the organization, including decision making authority and ultimate responsibility for the organization’s performance.

The next layer down indicates the middle managers and other individuals who have decision making authority and manage their own teams of employees. This layer will include departmental managers, product managers, and other leadership roles.

Below that layer, we can see the operational personnel, the people responsible for carrying out the tasks and activities necessary for the organization’s day-to-day operations. This layer includes supervisors and team leaders, as well as the employees who are executing the tasks.

Finally, at the bottom of the hierarchical structure are the individual employees. These employees are responsible for executing the tasks and activities required of them.

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a tax levied on the sellers of a good shifts the question 5 options: supply curve upward (or to the left). supply curve downward (or to the right). demand curve upward (or to the right). demand curve downward (or to the left).

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A tax levied on the sellers of a good shifts the supply curve upward (or to the left). Hence, the correct option is (A).

What Happen To The Demand Curve When A Tax Is Levied?

When a tax is levied on the seller of a good, it affects the supply and demand curves of that good. The demand curve represents the buyers' behavior while the supply curve represents the sellers' behavior. When a tax is levied on the sellers of a good, it affects the supply curve by shifting it upward (or to the left). This is because the sellers now receive a lower price for their product, so they produce and supply less. Hence, the supply curve shifts to the left.

The question was incomplete, but most probably your question was:

A tax levied on the sellers of a good shift the

A. supply curve upward (or to the left)

B. supply curve downward (or to the right)

C. demand curve upward (or to the right)

D. demand curve downward (or to the left)

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Explain three different factors in the market environment that have an effect on pick n pay

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Weather, WWF's response and illegal fishing are the three  different factors in the market environment that have an effect on pick n pay.

WWF's response to the deepening crisis is on the one hand educating consumers about threats to marine ecosystems affecting demand and on the other hand working with the seafood industry to reach major retailers with whom they can collaborate strategically throughout the product chain. was to find a partner. Working together for responsible harvesting

Weather is another factor that affects the Pick n Pay Company. For example, 2014 may have had little rain, the climate may not have been warm enough for certain crops, or some fruits and vegetables may not be available, which is the goal and reputation of Pick n Pay.  

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when recording the adjusting entry for uncollectible accounts using the allowance method, customers' subsidiary accounts are not directly reduced. the reason is . (select all that apply.)

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It would be impossible under the allowance technique to directly reduce the subsidiary accounts without first determining whether specific customer accounts be uncollectible.

What do sub ledger accounts do?

A group of related accounts with combined balances equal to the balance in a particular general ledger account is referred to as a subsidiary ledger. Control accounts or master accounts are terms used to describe a general ledger account it lists the account balances of subsidiary ledgers.

What three different subordinate ledger types are there?

The three types of subledgers—fixed asset sub-ledger, trade receivables sub-ledger, & accounts payable sub-ledger—can be used to separate them and reduce the likelihood of fraud and errors.

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suppose aggregate demand is currently ad1. what open market operation is the appropriate counter-cyclical operation, in this case?

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The appropriate counter-cyclical operation in this case when aggregate demand is currently AD1 is to apply an Open market sale to decrease the quantity of money in circulation in the economy.

Aggregate demand is a measure of the overall demand for goods and services in the economy. It shows the amount of real output that buyers are willing and able to purchase at each possible price level.

This figure is calculated by combining consumer spending, investment, government spending, and net exports (exports minus imports). Open market operations are a monetary policy tool used by central banks to control the supply of money in an economy.

It is a process that involves the purchase and sale of government securities, such as treasury bills or bonds, by a central bank. When the central bank wants to increase the supply of money in circulation, it will buy government securities from banks, injecting cash into the system, and vice versa.

When aggregate demand is AD1, it means that the economy is running below capacity, which could lead to higher unemployment and underutilization of resources.

In this scenario, the appropriate counter-cyclical operation would be to apply an Open market sale to decrease the quantity of money in circulation in the economy.

This would increase the value of the currency, making exports less competitive and discouraging imports, which would in turn reduce aggregate demand, bring prices down and increase the economy's output.

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eurodollar quotes for contracts maturing in 240, 331 and 422 days are 96.95, 96.6 and 96.46, respectively. the 240-day libor zero rate is 4.4% (with continuous compounding). for the purpose of this problem, no adjustment is necessary for the difference between forward and futures rates. attempt 3/4 for 8 pts. part 1 what is the 331-day libor zero rate (with continuous compounding)?

Answers

To calculate the 331-day LIBOR zero rate, the following steps should be followed:

Step 1: Find the discount factor of the 240-day Eurodollar contract using the given LIBOR rate. We can use the formula below:

$$DF = \frac{1}{1+rT}$$

where r is the interest rate and T is the time to maturity in years. Here, r = 0.044 and T = 240/360 = 0.6667.

$$DF_{240} = \frac{1}{1+0.044×0.6667} = 0.9823$$

Step 2: Find the forward price of the 331-day Eurodollar contract. We can use the formula below:

$$F_1 = S_1 × e^{r_1(T_1 - T_0)}$$

where F1 is the forward price, S1 is the spot price, r1 is the forward rate, T1 is the time to maturity of the forward contract, and T0 is the time to maturity of the spot contract. Here, we have:

T0 = 240/360 = 0.6667

T1 = 331/360 = 0.9194

S1 = 100 - 96.95 = 3.05

r1 = (ln(DF240/DF331))/T1 = (ln(0.9823/DF331))/T1

We don't know DF331 yet, so we have to rearrange the equation to solve for it:

$$DF_{331} = \frac{DF_{240}}{e^{r_1(T_1 - T_0)}} = \frac{0.9823}{e^{r_1(T_1 - T_0)}}$$

Then, we can plug in the values and solve for r1:

$$r_1 = \frac{\ln(DF_{240}/DF_{331})}{T_1 - T_0} = \frac{\ln(0.9823/DF_{331})}{0.2527}$$

Step 3: Find the LIBOR zero rate of the 331-day Eurodollar contract using the formula below:

$$r_{331} = \frac{\ln(\frac{100}{F_1})}{T_1}$$

Substituting the values found in Steps 1 and 2, we get:

$$r_{331} = \frac{\ln(\frac{100}{S_1 × e^{r_1(T_1 - T_0)}})}{T_1} = \frac{\ln(\frac{100}{3.05 × e^{r_1(0.2527)}})}{0.9194}$$

Plugging in the value of r1 found in Step 2, we get:

r331 = 0.0472 or 4.72%

Therefore, the LIBOR zero rate of the 331-day Eurodollar contract (with continuous compounding) is 4.72%.

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red bull uses social media extensively to promote its edgy brand image, but according to the case it seems to do very little on social media to communicate information about its actual product. based on this observation, which element of the 4e framework seems least important to red bull?

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Red Bull uses social media extensively to promote its edgy brand image, but according to the case, it does very little on social media to communicate information about its actual product. Based on this observation, the element of the 4E framework that seems least important to Red Bull is Engage.

Engage is the process of directly interacting with the customer by providing personalized experiences and content in order to create and maintain relationships. Red Bull does not seem to be focused on using social media to create personalized experiences with their customers. According to the case, the element of the 4E framework that seems least important to Red Bull to Explain.

Red Bull is a leading brand that uses social media extensively to promote its edgy brand image. It is a well-known fact that the company has done very little on social media to communicate information about its actual product. Instead, Red Bull uses social media as a platform to engage with its audience by sharing posts that are relevant to their interests, such as action sports and extreme activities.

Red Bull uses social media to promote its brand image, and its content is geared towards generating excitement, excitement, and anticipation for Red Bull's next big event. The company focuses on the following 3 elements of the 4E framework:Excite Engage Experience.The company's social media strategy is geared toward Excite, Engage, and Experience.

Red Bull generates excitement by sharing content that aligns with its customers' interests. They engage their customers by encouraging them to share their own content, such as photos and videos of extreme sports.

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