Answer:
A non-example of brackish water would be water that is not a mixture of fresh and saltwater. For example, distilled water, which contains no dissolved salts or minerals, would be a non-example of brackish water.
A seed has been dormant during a drought period. Rainfall finally produces conditions favorable for growth.
Which hormone is responsible for awakening the seed from dormancy?
O insulin
O gibberellin
O ethylene
O auxin
Answer:
B) Gibberellin
Explanation:
Gibberellins are a class of plant hormones that play important roles in various plant processes, including seed germination. When a seed is exposed to favorable environmental conditions, such as sufficient moisture, the production of gibberellin is triggered, which then stimulates the germination process. Therefore, gibberellins can be considered as the "awakening hormone" for seeds.
+ I took the quiz and got it right :)
Gibberellin hormone is responsible for awakening the seed from dormancy. So, the correct option is B.
What is Gibberellin hormone?One of the plant hormones that controls a number of processes involved in plant growth, organ development, and environmental reactions is gibberellin (GA). They include the germination of seeds, the lengthening of stems and leaves, the start of blossoming, and the growth of flowers, fruit, and seeds.
Gibberellin is produced whenever a seed is exposed to favorable environmental factors, such as enough moisture, which subsequently promotes the germination process. Gibberellins can therefore be thought to be the "awakening hormone" to seeds. Gibberellin hormone is responsible for awakening the seed from dormancy.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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A biologist was studying a group of lions. Some lions had an extra fold in their nasal cavity called a turbinate. Exhaled air passes over the turbinate and water vapor in the air condenses and can be reabsorbed. Use the concept of natural selection to explain what you might expect to see if the climate changes. You can adjust the climate however you want. You must use the following terms in your answer:
Natural selection
Adaptation
Genetic variation
Heritable trait
I will mark brainliest whoever answers first!
Answer:
If the climate changes, the lions with the heritable trait of an extra fold in the nasal cavity (turbinate) would be better adapted to the new environment due to the water vapor reabsorbtion this turbinate allows. Thus, through natural selection, these lions would be more likely to survive in the new climate, and pass their genetic variation (which includes the turbinate) to their offspring. As a result, the presence of this heritable trait of the turbinate would be more common in the population of lions in the new climate.
Humans as a species, have many different kinds of skin colors that change across the globe. The amount of melanin produced by melanocytes in the skin determines skin color, which is affected by genetic and environmental factors. There is no generic trend in human skin color, but skin color tends to be darker in populations that live closer to the equator, where there is more intense sunlight and a higher need for UV radiation protection. Skin color is lighter in populations living farther away from the equator, where there is less intense sunlight and a greater need for the skin to create vitamin D.
• AA or Aa the genotype of purple flower and aa for white flower. At the
second locus, the B allele (tall) is dominant to the b allele (short). What
would be the result of a cross between two Purple and tall plants, genotype
AaBb?
A cross between two AaBb plants would produce offspring with a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio.
What genotype has a prominent purple flower to white flower pattern?Purple blooms are dominant over white blossoms in Mendel's pea plants, and just one gene is responsible for this characteristic. The genotypes PP, Pp, and pp are candidates for this characteristic. Due to the presence of two copies of the dominant allele (P), an organism with the genotype PP will exhibit the phenotypic of purple flowers.
How similar are the genotypes of AA and AA?According to the genotypes of the parents, zygotic genotypes occur in specific ratios. The genotypic ratio between the AA, Aa, and aa genotypes is 1:2:1.
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If the shaft of a hair is 8 cms long and
shows arsenic 2 cms from the tip of the
hair, how long ago was the person
poisoned?
3 months ago
6 months ago
2 months ago
4 months ago
A person was 6 months ago if the hair shaft is 8 cm long and there is arsenic 2 cm from the tip of the hair.
How much time does arsenic remain in hair?Analysis of your urine is unable to reveal whether you had previously been exposed to arsenic because the majority of arsenic exits your body within a few days. If you have been exposed to high levels over the last 6 to 12 months, tests on your fingernails or hair can reveal this.
How is the number of hairs determined?Counting each individual hair on a part of your scalp is the most exact approach to gauge your hair density, while it is also the least practicable. To accomplish this, researchers frequently use trichoscopy, an imaging method, in lab settings.
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Hasty generalizations often include_
A. connections
B. begging the question fallacies
C. stereotypes
D. slippery slope fallacies
such as "All rural areas are boring."
SUBMIT
The correct option is (C) Stereotypes are often included in hasty generalizations.
A sort of logical error known as hasty generalizations involves making judgments based on scant or biased evidence. Hasty generalizations frequently utilize stereotypes or generalizations about a group of individuals based on incomplete or biased information. An impulsive generalization based on stereotypes might be made, for instance, if someone generalized a group of individuals based on their color, gender, or religion. Prejudices are maintained and discriminatory actions may result from hasty generalizations. This error should be recognized, and efforts should be made to base judgments on reliable and legitimate evidence.
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. Which of the following statements regarding gas exchange is correct?
A) Contracting muscle tissue will not need increased amounts of O₂.
B) Blood that is leaving metabolically active tissues will be high in O2.
C) Blood that is leaving the lungs will be high in O₂ and low in CO₂.
D) Blood returning to the heart from body tissues will be low in CO₂.
The correct statement regarding gas exchange is:
C) Blood that is leaving the lungs will be high in O₂ and low in CO₂.
What is gas exchange ?
Gas exchange refers to the transfer of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) between an organism and its environment.
Therefore, During gas exchange in the lungs, oxygen from inhaled air diffuses into the blood while carbon dioxide produced by the body's metabolism is removed from the blood and exhaled. As a result, the blood leaving the lungs will have a high concentration of oxygen and a low concentration of carbon dioxide.
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Paleoanthropologists can often tell if a fossil primate was bipedal from the bones of the skull alone--specifically the position of the foramen magnum. What about the position of the foramen magnum would indicate bipedalism? (no more than 2 sentences).
The position of the foramen magnum, the opening in the skull where the spinal cord enters, can indicate bipedalism if it is located underneath the skull, indicating that the spinal cord was oriented vertically to support the weight of the body in an upright position.
What is the location of foramen magnum ?In bipedal primates, such as humans, the position of the foramen magnum is located towards the bottom of the skull, close to the center of the skull's base. This is because when an animal stands upright, the skull needs to be balanced on top of the spine, which is vertical. Therefore, the foramen magnum needs to be positioned in a way that allows the skull to be balanced over the spine.
In contrast, in non-bipedal primates, such as chimpanzees, the foramen magnum is located towards the back of the skull, closer to the posterior end of the skull's base. This is because their spines are oriented horizontally and the skull sits atop the spine, more like a table, rather than a pillar.
Therefore, the position of the foramen magnum is an important indicator of bipedalism, as it reveals how the skull is balanced on the spine and whether the spinal cord orientation is adapted for upright walking.
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why ?
with explanation
Answer:
Because
Explanation:
Because\
What is a Non-example of estuary?
What is a Non- example of edge effect?
What is a Non-example of eutrophication?
Explanation:
A non-example of estuary would be a mountain range since estuaries are areas where freshwater and saltwater mix, typically where a river flows into the ocean.
A non-example of edge effect would be a deep ocean since edge effect refers to the changes that occur at the boundary between two different ecosystems, such as a forest and a field.
A non-example of eutrophication would be a desert because eutrophication is the process of excessive nutrients, usually from human activities like agricultural run-off, causing an overgrowth of algae and other plants in bodies of water. In a desert, there is typically not enough water to support significant plant growth, let alone an overgrowth.
Question 6 (1 point)
Stan has really hated his body for as long as he can remember. He thinks he looks fat, and he feels heavy and clumsy. Recently his friend Brad, who is fit and athletic, told Stan that he struggles with body issues too, but he puts those aside to focus on his positives. That has made Stan realize that the feelings he has about his body might not be realistic or helpful. What is the MOST accurate rating of Stan's body image?
Question 6 options:
strongly positive
more positive than negative
strongly negative
more negative than positive
Question 7 (1 point)
Kadeem tries out for the track team. He is able to join the team, but he isn't best at anything. In running, especially, several team members far surpass him. They have longer legs and seem to run faster than Kadeem with practically no effort. What is the BEST goal Kadeem could set for himself with running?
Question 7 options:
Give up on running and concentrate on other track activities that are easier.
Work on building up muscle and aerobic fitness to run as fast as he can.
Work to run faster than at least one of the faster runners on his team.
Work to run faster than the fastest member of his team.
Question 8 (1 point)
At which age have 40 percent of girls and 25 percent of boys become unhappy with the shape of their bodies?
Question 8 options:
five years old
six years old
elementary school
middle school
Question 9 (1 point)
At which age do children begin to understand body weight and begin to want to grow up?
Question 9 options:
two years old
four years old
five years old
six years old
ANSWER FAST PLEASE!!!
C. strongly negative
What is the BEST goal Kadeem could set for himself with running?D. Work to run faster than at least one of the faster runners on his team.
At which age have 40 percent of girls and 25 percent of boys become unhappy with the shape of their bodies?C. elementary school
At which age do children begin to understand body weight and begin to want to grow up?B. four years old
One bird going up a tree to look for insects and one bird going down a tree to look for insects is an example of what?
Resource partitioning, a phenomenon that happens when various species coexist in the same habitat and divide the available resources, is demonstrated here (such as food, space, or time).
Why is resource partitioning necessary and what does it entail?It is a phenomenon that happens when various species coexist in the same ecosystem and share resources (such food, space, or time) in order to reduce competition and increase their own chances of survival. The two bird species in this instance are searching for insects at various locations on the same tree, which enables them to share the resource without direct competition. This may improve the ecosystem's overall stability and variety.
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One bird going up a tree to look for insects and one bird going down a tree to look for insects is an example of resource partitioning, which takes place when multiple species live in the same habitat and share the available resources.In this case, the two bird species are searching for insects at different places on the same tree, allowing them to share the resource without fighting over it. This may benefit the general health and variety of the ecosystem.
If one Potato Head - who is smiling and noseless, and who came from a mother whose tongue sticking out - mated with a Potato Head that was heterozygous for both of these genes, what phenotypes would be expected in their offspring (include ratios).
The expected phenotypic ratio of their offspring would be 1:1:1:1 or 25%:25%:25%:25%.
We can anticipate the possible allele combinations that the offspring may inherit from their parents using the laws of inheritance. There are two potential alleles for each trait, and each parent adds one allele to each trait. For each characteristic, the following possible allele combinations exist:
Smiling and noseless, with tongue sticking out: ss nn tt (homozygous for smiling and noseless, and homozygous recessive for tongue sticking out)
Heterozygous for both traits: Ss Nn Tt (heterozygous for smiling and noseless, and heterozygous for tongue sticking out)
The possible phenotypes of the offspring are:
Smiling and noseless, with tongue sticking out: 1/4 or 25%
Smiling and noseless, without tongue sticking out: 1/4 or 25%
Not smiling and noseless, with tongue sticking out: 1/4 or 25%
Not smiling and noseless, without tongue sticking out: 1/4 or 25%
The expected phenotypic ratio of their offspring would be 1:1:1:1 or 25%:25%:25%:25%.
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generally the number of the producer is more than the number of the consumer in foods and why
Answer:
because of the laws of thermodynamics, specifically the second law of thermodynamicsExplanation:
Generally, the number of producers is more than the number of consumers in a food chain because of the laws of thermodynamics, specifically the second law of thermodynamics which states that every energy transfer or transformation results in a loss of energy to the environment in the form of heat.
In a food chain, energy is transferred from producers (plants) to primary consumers (herbivores) and then to secondary consumers (carnivores) and so on. However, with each energy transfer, some of the energy is lost as heat, so the amount of energy available to support higher trophic levels decreases. This means that as we move up the food chain, there is less energy available to support organisms at the higher levels.
Therefore, in order to sustain a large number of consumers, there must be a larger number of producers to support the energy needs of the entire food chain. In other words, the energy available to the herbivores is much less than the energy available to the plants, and the energy available to the carnivores is much less than the energy available to the herbivores. This explains why there are generally more producers than consumers in a food chain.
Determining a person’s pressure injury risk is a process that includes:
A. Use of an informal risk assessment tool that facility WOCN created
B. Clinical examination of the patient
C. Awareness of additional risk factors beyond those include in risk tools
D. A and C
E. B and C
The correct answer is E, Determining a person's pressure injury risk is a complex process that requires multiple assessments and considerations.
Two critical components of this process are clinical examination of the patient and awareness of additional risk factors beyond those included in risk assessment tools.
Clinical examination of the patient involves a thorough evaluation of the person's skin, including the presence of any existing pressure injuries or areas of redness or inflammation. The clinician may also assess the patient's mobility, nutritional status, and overall health, as these factors can contribute to pressure injury risk.
In addition, it is essential to be aware of additional risk factors beyond those included in risk assessment tools. For example, a patient's age, medical history, and medications can all increase their susceptibility to pressure injuries.
Therefore, the correct answer is E, which includes both clinical examination of the patient and awareness of additional risk factors beyond those included in risk assessment tools. It is crucial to use a comprehensive approach to pressure injury risk assessment to provide the best possible care for patients.
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The raising of only one crop or product without using the land for other purposes is sedentary O nomadic monoculture expansion
The correct term for the raising of only one crop or product without using the land for other purposes is monoculture.
What is monoculture?
Monoculture refers to the practice of growing a single crop, species, or variety of plant in a given area, often over a large scale. This is typically done for economic reasons, as it allows for efficient use of resources and streamlined production processes.
Monoculture is often criticized for its negative impact on the environment, as it can lead to soil degradation, loss of biodiversity, and increased use of pesticides and fertilizers. It can also have negative social impacts, such as the displacement of small-scale farmers and rural communities.
Sedentary refers to a way of life in which people live in one place and do not move around. Nomadic refers to a way of life in which people move around and do not live in one place permanently. Expansion refers to the process of growing or increasing in size or scope.
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PLEASE HELP ME QUICK
Electromagnetic Spectrum Lab Report
Instructions: In this virtual lab, you will use a virtual spectrometer to analyze astronomical bodies in space. Record your hypothesis and spectrometric results in the lab report below. You will submit your completed report to your instructor.
Objectives(s):
In your own words, what is the purpose of this lab?
Hypothesis:
In this section, please include the predictions you developed during your lab activity. These statements reflect your predicted outcomes for the experiment.
Procedure:
The materials and procedures are listed in your virtual lab. You do not need to repeat them here. However, you should note if you experienced any errors or other factors that might affect your outcome. Using your summary questions at the end of your virtual lab activity, please clearly define the dependent and independent variables of the experiment.
Data:
Record the elements present in each unknown astronomical object. Be sure to indicate “yes” or “no” for each element.
Hydrogen Helium Lithium Sodium Carbon Nitrogen
Moon One
Moon Two
Planet One
Planet Two
Conclusion:
Your conclusion will include a summary of the lab results and an interpretation of the results. Please answer all questions in complete sentences using your own words.
1. Using two to three sentences, summarize what you investigated and observed in this lab.
2. Astronomers use a wide variety of technology to explore space and the electromagnetic spectrum; why do you believe it is essential to use many types of equipment when studying space?
3. If carbon was the most common element found in the moons and planets, what element is missing that would make them similar to Earth? Explain why. (Hint: Think about the carbon cycle.)
4. We know that the electromagnetic spectrum uses wavelengths and frequencies to determine a lot about outer space. How does it help us find out the make-up of stars?
5. Why might it be useful to determine the elements that a planet or moon is made up of?
The objectives or purpose of this lab is to use a virtual spectrometer to analyze the electromagnetic radiation emitted by astronomical objects and identify the elements present in them.
What is the Hypothesis?It is predicted that the virtual spectrometer will successfully identify the elements present in the astronomical objects based on the patterns of electromagnetic radiation they emit.
Procedure:
The dependent variable in this experiment is the presence or absence of elements in the astronomical objects, while the independent variable is the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the objects. No errors or other factors that might affect the outcome were encountered during the lab activity.
Data:
Elements Moon One Moon Two Planet One Planet Two
Hydrogen No No Yes No
Helium No Yes No No
Lithium No No No No
Sodium No No No Yes
Carbon Yes Yes Yes Yes
Nitrogen No No No No
Conclusion:
In this lab, we investigated and observed the electromagnetic radiation emitted by astronomical objects using a virtual spectrometer. We used the patterns of radiation to identify the elements present in each object.It is essential to use many types of equipment when studying space because each type of equipment provides different information about the universe. By combining information from multiple sources, astronomers can develop a more complete understanding of space.If carbon was the most common element found in the moons and planets, the missing element that would make them similar to Earth is oxygen. Oxygen is a crucial element in the carbon cycle because it combines with carbon to form carbon dioxide, which is then used by plants for photosynthesis. Without oxygen, the carbon cycle cannot function properly, making the planet or moon unsuitable for supporting life as we know it.The electromagnetic spectrum helps us find out the make-up of stars by analyzing the patterns of radiation they emit. Different elements emit radiation at different wavelengths, allowing astronomers to identify the elements present in a star based on the spectrum of radiation it emits.Determining the elements that a planet or moon is made up of can provide valuable information about its geological history and potential for supporting life. For example, the presence of certain elements such as water, carbon, and nitrogen can indicate the presence of organic molecules and the potential for supporting life.Learn about carbon cycle here https://brainly.com/question/12005308
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8. Metamorphic rocks are created through a change in the rock's original structure.
A. What are three types of change that occur in the process of metamorphism? (3 points)
B. What happens to the rock structure during each of type of change? (6 points)
A. Three types of change that occur in the process of metamorphism are: Recrystallization, Neometamorphism and Deformation.
What are the changes that occur in the rock structure?B. The changes that occur in the rock structure during each type of metamorphism are:
Recrystallization: This involves the growth of new crystals within the rock, while retaining the same mineral composition. During this process, the original crystal structure may be destroyed, and new crystals may form in a more tightly packed, interlocking arrangement. Neometamorphism: This involves the formation of new minerals from the original minerals in the rock. The temperature and pressure conditions during this process may be high enough to break down the original minerals and form new ones.Deformation: This involves the physical alteration of the rock due to stress and pressure. The rock may be folded, faulted, or sheared, leading to a change in its shape and structure. During this process, the original mineral composition and texture of the rock may be preserved, but its physical structure will be altered.Learn more about Metamorphic rocks here: https://brainly.com/question/20475194
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Answer:
8. Metamorphic rocks are created through a change in the rock's original structure.
A. What are three types of change that occur in the process of metamorphism? (3 points) Contact, regional, and dynamic.
B. What happens to the rock structure during each of type of change? (6 points)
Contact metamorphism occurs when magma comes into contact with an already-existing rock body.
Regional metamorphism occurs when rocks are exposed to heat and pressure over a large area.
Dynamic metamorphism occurs from high shear stress, high pressure, and high strain.
Explanation:
Pls don't copy word-for-word, this is from my assignment submission and we could both be in trouble for plagiarism.
To have the biggest positive impact on water conservation, people should eat less:
Question 11 options:
bread
corn
beef
palm oil
When someone is admitted to the hospital, one of the first procedures health-care professionals perform is a blood draw. One lab value checked is a white blood cell (WBC) count. If the WBC count is elevated (normal range 4 4,000–11,000/mm3), this could indicate the presence of inflammation. Further analysis (called a differential) is performed to determine the relative prevalence of different types of white blood cells and the potential cause of the inflammation. What might be causing the inflammation if eosinophils were elevated? Explain your reasoning
The most common causes of infection-induced neutrophilia are acute bacterial infections such pneumococcal, staphylococcal, or leptospiral infections.
Neutrophilia can also result from specific viral illnesses such herpes simplex, varicella, and EBV infections.
A bacterial, viral, fungal, or parasitic illness may result in an increase in neutrophils in the blood. Those with injuries, such as burns or hip fractures, as well as those with inflammatory diseases, particularly autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, are more likely to experience this.
A greater absolute neutrophil count in the blood than the typical reference range is referred to as neutrophililia. Infections, inflammation, and/or neoplastic processes can all produce neutrophilia.
Any types of infections, including those brought on by bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, may result in an increase in neutrophil activity and quantity in the blood. Certain medications, like corticosteroids, also result in a rise in the blood's neutrophil population.
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how does skinner show that this may be due to epigenetic effects
B.F Skinner was most famous for his invention, books and psychologies. He used to believe that behaviour is based on the environment. While he did not especially study epigenetic effects but his theories point out that the epigenetic effect is based on behaviour.
He introduced the "skinner box experiment". In this experiment pigeons or rats are put in cages and a lever or button provides food or water to them. And as time passed the animal learned to touch the button to get food and water. Skinner argued that this type of learning is the primary mechanism by which behaviour is shaped. But in the research, it can be concluded that genes are involved in learning and memory.
Skinner's research also showed that a specific schedule can influence the strength and persistence of learned behaviour. In some cases, where the reward is not delivered every time the behaviour is exhibited) can lead to more persistent behaviour than continuous reinforcement.
Therefore, skinner did not study the epigenetic effect of his involvement in the study of human behaviour suggesting that epigenetic mechanisms can be involved in this process.
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People often think bonds store or hold energy. If that is true, should the energy be high or low when a bond forms(balanced)?
Energy isn't really saved or maintained when an atom bonds with another atom; instead, it's discharged or given off. This is due to the fact that the bonding allows the atoms to acquire a lower energy state.
Why are bonds high energy?High-energy substances. When two acidic groups or related chemicals condense, they form acid anhydride bonds, which are seen in high energy molecules. These bonds are referred to as high energy bonds because free energy is produced when they are hydrolyzed.
What makes some bonds more energy-dense than others?Different chemical bonds have varying strengths. Atoms that are more strongly attracted to one another have bonds that are more stable and robust. Chemical bonds that are stronger than those that are weaker require more energy to break than those that are weaker.
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Why did Darwin compare his theory of natural selection to Copernicus's theory that Earth orbited the Sun?
3) At your acute care organization, pressure injury risk assessment facility protocols stipulate the frequency of pressure injury risk assessment and reassessment. Assume that your hospital protocols follow IHI recommendations and reflects common practice at most hospitals. Following protocol, you should:
A. Assess for pressure injury risk on admission and perform skin assessments daily
B. Reassess pressure injury risk weekly
C. Perform a daily skin assessment and a risk assessment if warranted
D. Perform a skin assessment every shift, for every patient
Daily skin checks and risk evaluations for pressure injuries are conducted.
As soon as the patient arrives at the institution, a skin evaluation as well as a pressure injury risk assessment must be performed and recorded in the medical file.
According to rules set forth by The Joint Commission, a physical examination must be finished within 24 hours after hospital admission. The skin examination and risk assessment for pressure injuries should be part of this physical examination.
Within 24 hours of admission, the NDNQI standard requires documentation of admittance skin assessments and pressure injury risk assessments.
The annual Global Pressure Ulcer Symposium recommends that these tests be finished within 4 hours of admission.
The recommended time frame is eight hours.
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Explore the diagram of the stages in human development. Then complete the flowchart using the terms embryo development, fertilization, and zygote formation.
According to the research, the correct order of the stages in human development to complete the flowchart is:
gamete formationfertilizationzygote formationembryo developmentfetus developmentWhat are the stages in human development?They are the different stages that the embryo goes through, how an ovum becomes a blastocyst, then an embryo and finally a fetus.
In this sense, this embryonic process implies a stage where fertilization occurs naturally and cell multiplication (segmentation), organization of tissues and organs, and fetus development.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the stages in human development include fertilization, various cell divisions, development, and growth for approximately nine months until the time of birth.
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Why do cash crops undermine a nation’s food self-sufficiency?
Question 20 options:
cash crops can be sold for large profits
international trade often involves import and export fees
they are exported, rather than feeding the local community
only illegal crops like coca (for cocaine) are grown
Answer:
they are exported, rather than feeding the local community
Someone who is malnourished may not be getting an adequate amount of _________ in their daily diet.
Question 25 options:
calories
nutrients
either calories or nutrients
In which environment would you most likely find seaweed and other plants that depend on photosynthesis to survive?
Responses
A- hydrothermal vent community
B- abyssal plain
C- sublittoral zone
D- rocky intertidal
Answer: The answer is C
Plants that depend on photosynthesis to survive are most likely to be found in the sublittoral zone. This is the region of the ocean immediately below the intertidal zone and is characterized by the presence of seaweed and other plants. The sublittoral zone is shallow enough to allow sunlight to penetrate, which is essential for photosynthesis.
Order the steps of humoral immunity from top to bottom
Humoral immunity is a type of immune response that involves the production of antibodies by B cells in response to the presence of foreign substances called antigens. Antigens can be proteins, carbohydrates, or other molecules that are recognized as foreign by the immune system.
When B cells encounter an antigen that matches their specific antigen receptor, they are activated and differentiate into plasma cells, which produce large quantities of antibodies that circulate in the blood and lymphatic system.
These antibodies can bind to and neutralize the antigen, and also mark it for destruction by other immune cells. Humoral immunity plays a critical role in protecting the body against infections caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, and also in providing immunity against some types of cancer.
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• AA or Aa the genotype of purple flower and aa for white flower. At the
second locus, the B allele (tall) is dominant to the b allele (short). What
would be the result of a cross between two Purple and tall plants, genotype
AaBb?
Answer:
AA = 25%
Aa = 50%
aa = 25%
BB = 25%
Bb = 50%
bb = 25%
Explanation:
Purple offspring is 75%, White offspring is 25%
Tall offspring is 75%, Short offspring is 25%
Question 1 (1 point)
At which age do children begin to recognize their own bodies and feel embarrassment?
Question 1 options:
two years old
four years old
five years old
six years old
Question 2 (1 point)
What is the way you see yourself in your mind that is influenced by what you see, feel, and think?
Question 2 options:
body composition
body image
altruism
weight
Question 3 (1 point)
James started a fitness program a year ago. The program has helped him feel stronger, sleep better, and have more energy. He's set more ambitious goals for himself, added more difficult activities to his program, and helped his parents and his sister Anna develop fitness programs for themselves. What about James's story BEST shows his altruism?
Question 3 options:
adding more difficult activities to his program
helping others develop fitness programs
developing more ambitious goals
feeling stronger, sleeping better, and having more energy
Question 4 (1 point)
If two joggers have similar levels of commitment and purpose but one is clearly better at jogging than the other, what is the MOST likely difference between the two joggers?
Question 4 options:
fitness goals
body composition
motivation
body positivity
Question 5 (1 point)
Saved
What are a multitude of media images that show successful people who are all thin MOST likely suggesting?
Question 5 options:
that everyone is thin
that being thin is one way of being healthy
that being thin is easy to achieve
that being thin is the ideal
Question 6 (1 point)
Answer: #1 Two years old. #3 Helping others develop fitness programs. #4 Body Composition. Sorry for not answering #5 or #2 those questions weren’t on my quiz, and I don’t want to answer those incase if my answer is wrong, But I still hope this helps.
Explanation: I took the K12 quiz and got an 100.