Lederberg's replica plating experiments provided important evidence for the existence of spontaneous mutations in bacteria, and helped to lay the foundation for the field of bacterial genetics.
Esther Lederberg was able to demonstrate the presence of spontaneous mutations in bacteria using her replica plating experiments. In her experiments, Lederberg took a bacterial culture and made several copies of it on different agar plates.
She then exposed each plate to a different condition, such as an antibiotic, to see if any bacteria would grow under that condition. She found that some bacteria would grow on certain plates but not on others, suggesting that they had acquired a resistance to the specific condition being tested.
Lederberg then used replica plating to transfer bacteria from the original plate to a new plate without exposing them to any conditions, and found that some of the bacteria still grew on the plates that they previously could not. This indicated that some bacteria had spontaneously acquired mutations that allowed them to survive under the new conditions.
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10. Kinetic energy is defined as
A. a measure of the mass of an object
B. a measure of the amount of motion particles have
C. a measure of the distance between particles in an object
D. a measure of the number of particles in an object
The arrows in B and C point to structures that can both be described as a ______.
what body system that includes the heart and blood vessels?
The cardiovascular system includes the heart and blood vessels. The heart is a muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body, and the blood vessels are the tubes through which the blood flows.
The cardiovascular system is responsible for circulating blood, oxygen, and nutrients to the body's cells, as well as removing waste products and carbon dioxide from the body. It plays a vital role in maintaining homeostasis and supporting the body's various physiological functions.
The blood vessels that make up the cardiovascular system include arteries, veins, and capillaries, and these vessels vary in size and structure depending on their location and function. Arteries are the large vessels that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart and towards the body's tissues and organs. Veins, on the other hand, are the vessels that carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
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The Austrian monk and scientist Gregor ___________
studied the traits of pea plants. He could see that pea plant traits were passed from parents to offspring in a process called _______________
Answer: The Austrian monk and scientist Gregor Mendel studied the traits of pea plants. He could see that pea plant traits were passed from parents to offspring in a process called inheritance or heredity.
Explanation: Gregor Mendel, an Austrian monk and scientist, is known as the father of modern genetics. In the mid-1800s, Mendel conducted a series of experiments using pea plants to study the patterns of inheritance of traits.
Mendel observed that pea plants displayed distinct traits, such as flower color, seed shape, and plant height. Through his experiments, he discovered that these traits were passed from parents to offspring in a predictable manner.
Mendel coined the term "inheritance" or "heredity" to describe this process. He found that the traits of pea plants were determined by discrete units, which we now refer to as genes. These genes are passed down from parents to their offspring.
By carefully cross-breeding pea plants and observing the patterns of trait inheritance, Mendel formulated his laws of inheritance, which laid the foundation for our understanding of genetics.
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(SCIENCE) 100 points in total so PLEASE help me
Plants in Florida and plants in northern states both undergo seasonal changes that are impacted by the ebb and flow of the seasons. However the two areas' specific seasonal changing patterns are different.
How do plants in Florida react to seasonal changes?What seasonal changes take place in Florida plants when spring starts to transition into summer Plant development slows as a result of plants having access to more sunshine. Trees start to develop buds, plants start to sprout and germinate, and plants start to bloom.
When time of year experience Florida plants a period of fresh growth?In general: May through September is normally the summer growing season. More specifically: June through September are the typical months in North Florida. Mid-May to early October are the seasons in Central Florida.
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Question:
How are seasonal changes in Florida plants similar to and different from the seasonal changes of plants in northern states?
your brother has an autosomal recessive disorder, while you are unaffected. neither one of your parents is arrected. explain how this is possible
It is possible that a brother has an autosomal recessive disorder while you are unaffected, and neither one of your parents is affected because of a phenomenon called carrier status. The parents could be carriers of the gene mutation that causes the autosomal recessive disorder.
The parents could be carriers of the gene mutation that causes the autosomal recessive disorder, but they do not express any symptoms of the disorder since they only have one copy of the mutated gene.When the parents have children, there is a 25% chance that their child will inherit copies of the mutated gene and, thus, be affected by autosomal recessive disorder. This is because the child inherits one copy of the gene from each parent, and there is a 50% chance that the child will inherit one copy of the mutated gene and one copy of the normal gene, which makes them carriers of the gene mutation like their parents. The other 25% chance is that the child will inherit two copies of the normal gene and, therefore, be unaffected like you, their sibling with the autosomal recessive disorder.Autosomal recessive disorder is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. Autosomal recessive disorders, unlike autosomal dominant disorders, require two copies of the mutated gene for the disease to develop. The probability of parents carrying an autosomal recessive disorder gene mutation is calculated by the probability of two carrier parents passing it down to their children, which is 25% for each child. However, because the mutation is not expressed in the carriers, the probability of the children expressing the mutation is 25% less than that.Learn more about autosomal recessive disorder: https://brainly.com/question/8960702
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what is one difference between bacterial and archaeal flagella? a. bacterial flagella are made up of one subunit; archaeal flagella are made up of multiple subunits b. bacterial flagella are made up of flagellin, archaeal flagella are made up of tubulin c. bacterial flagella are embedded in the plasma membrane, archaeal are not d. bacterial flagella more clockwise, archael flagella move counterclockwise
One difference between bacterial and archaeal flagella is that bacterial flagella are embedded in the plasma membrane, while archaeal flagella are not. The correct option is C.
What is a flagellum?A flagellum is a whip-like structure that some cells use for movement. Some bacteria and eukaryotic cells use these long, thin filaments to travel forward in their environment, while other cells use cilia or pseudopodia.
Both types of flagella are used for motility, but they have different functions and are constructed and regulated in different ways.
Therefore, one major difference between bacterial and archaeal flagella is that bacterial flagella are embedded in the plasma membrane, while in the archae, flagella are not embedded in the plasma membrane.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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Which of the following best explains the reduction in human population growth rates over the past four decades
There are multiple factors that have contributed to the reduction in human population growth rates over the past four decades. Here are some of the most significant ones:
Improved access to birth control: The widespread availability of modern contraception has allowed people to control their fertility more effectively. This has led to a decline in unintended pregnancies and a reduction in the number of children born to each woman.Education: Education has been shown to be a key factor in reducing population growth rates. As people become more educated, they tend to have fewer children and delay childbearing.Economic development: Economic growth can also have a significant impact on population growth rates. As countries develop economically, their population growth rates tend to decline. This is because people have access to better healthcare, education, and employment opportunities, which can reduce the need for large families.Urbanization: The shift from rural to urban areas is also associated with a decline in population growth rates. In cities, people tend to have smaller families and delay childbearing due to the high cost of living and the greater availability of education and job opportunities.Overall, a combination of these factors has contributed to the reduction in human population growth rates over the past four decades.
a key advantage of quantitative genetic methodology over molecular genetics is that it can tell us about the effect of the environment as well as genetic influences. true or false?
A key advantage of quantitative genetic methodology over molecular genetics is that it can tell us about the effect of the environment as well as genetic influences. This statement is true.
What is the quantitative genetics?Quantitative genetics is a branch of genetics that focuses on the analysis of the inheritance of quantitative traits or complex traits that are influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.
Quantitative genetic methodology is a statistical approach that is used to study these traits, and it can tell us about the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to the variation in these traits.
In contrast, molecular genetics focuses on the study of the structure and function of genes at the molecular level, and it can tell us about the specific genetic factors that contribute to the variation in these traits. However, it cannot provide information about the environmental factors that influence these traits.
Therefore, quantitative genetic methodology has an advantage over molecular genetics in that it can tell us about the effect of the environment as well as genetic influences.
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does it seem likely that any of the seasonal changes noted in part ii, question 3, re-oxygenate the bottom waters of the dead zone in the autumn and winter?
Yes, it seems likely that some of the seasonal changes noted in part ii, can help re-oxygenate the bottom waters of the dead zone in the autumn and winter.
During autumn and winter, several factors contribute to the re-oxygenation of the bottom waters in the dead zone. First, the cooling of surface waters leads to a decrease in water temperature.
As water cools, its density increases, causing it to sink and mix with the deeper, oxygen-depleted waters. This mixing process is known as vertical mixing, and it helps distribute oxygen throughout the water column.
Second, in autumn and winter, there are generally stronger winds that can facilitate the mixing of the water layers. Wind-driven mixing, also known as turbulence, helps break down stratification, which is the separation of water layers due to differences in temperature, salinity, and density.
As these layers mix, oxygen from the surface can be more effectively distributed throughout the water column, reaching the bottom waters.
Third, during the colder months, there is a reduction in primary productivity, such as phytoplankton growth. This results in less organic matter sinking to the bottom waters and decaying, which reduces oxygen consumption by decomposers. As a consequence, oxygen levels in the bottom waters can be more easily replenished.
In summary, seasonal changes like the cooling of surface waters, increased wind-driven mixing, and reduced primary productivity during autumn and winter can help re-oxygenate the bottom waters of the dead zone. These processes work together to improve oxygen distribution and restore the health of aquatic ecosystems in affected areas.
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which of the following may possess an rna genome? choose one: a. viruses b. archaea c. bacteria d. prions e. eukaryotes
DNA encodes the genomes of all cellular organisms, including bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes. Noncellular organisms known as viruses can possess either RNA or DNA genomes, but never both.
Which organisms contain RNA in their genome?RNA typically serves as the genetic material for organisms that require rapid change. In order to adapt and stay one step ahead of their hosts' immune systems, viruses like HIV and influenza choose RNA over the more stable DNA.
Which three viruses have their genetic material in RNA?Orthomyxoviruses, hepatitis C virus (HCV), ebola, SARS, influenza, poliomyelitis, and retroviruses such as adult Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are among the RNA viruses that cause human diseases.
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if an individual suffered damage to the brainstem, they would likely experience difficulty controlling their breathing, blood pressure and eye movements.
True False
It is true that if an individual suffered damage to the brainstem, they would likely experience difficulty controlling their breathing, blood pressure and eye movements.
We know that the brainstem is part of the central nervous system, and is responsible for controlling many vital functions of the body, such as regulating breathing, blood pressure, heart rate and eye movements. Any damage to the brainstem can lead to a wide variety of symptoms, including confusion, difficulty walking, impaired movement and speech. Depending on the extent of the damage, the individual may experience partial or complete paralysis, loss of consciousness, and even coma. In extreme cases, it can be fatal.
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Name three different biomes that you saw Simba entered.
. Name 2 characteristics that allowed you to identify the biome.
Answer:
1. Grassland/Savannah
2.Jungle
3. Wasteland
Explanation:
1.It was obvious it was a grassland or a savannah due to it having little to few trees with tall grass spread out the entire horizon.
2.There were lots of tall trees with added vines. There were also some waterways accessible in the temperate biome.
3.There was little sign of life throughout the scene with that only being the hyenas, lion(scar), and decomposers. The area was full of rock, mountain, and bones acting as a literal grave yard as said in film.
A corn plant produces both male and female flowers. The male flower forms the tassel at the top of the plant and the female flower forms the ear of corn. The silk that emerge from the ear are the stigma of the female flower. Each silk leads to an ovule that can become a corn seed. Which of these must happen for corn seed to develop on the ear?
more tassels than silks need to be present on the same plant
pollen grains must fall from the tassels and land on the silks of the ear
pollen must be transported from the tassel to the silk through the phloem
the tassels must come into direct contact with the silks of the ear.
Pollen grains must fall from the tassels and land on the silks of the ear for corn seed to develop on the ear.
Corn is a crop that is grown for food, feed, and fuel. Corn or maize (Zea mays) is a cereal grain that has been cultivated for human use for thousands of years. Corn is used in a variety of ways, including as a raw material for feed and fuel production, as well as a food source. It is the most widely produced grain in the world. Cornflower corn plant produces both male and female flowers. The male flower forms the tassel at the top of the plant, and the female flower forms the ear of corn.
The ear of corn is the reproductive part of the plant, where the kernels are produced. The silk that emerges from the ear is the stigma of the female flower. Each silk leads to an ovule that can become a corn seed. For corn seed to develop on the ear, pollen grains must fall from the tassels and land on the silks of the ear. Corn is primarily pollinated by the wind, but bees, moths, and other insects can also contribute to the process. After fertilization, the corn kernel begins to grow and develop.
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which of the following best describes an event during step 2 in the simplified model above? a. a new rna molecule is synthesized using a dna template b. a new polypeptide is synthesized using an rna template c. thymine nucleotides in an rna molecule are replaced with uracil nucleotides d. noncoding sequences are removed from a newly synthesized rna molecule
Step 2 in the simplified model provided refers to the process of transcription, which involves the synthesis of an RNA molecule using a DNA template.
During transcription, an enzyme called RNA polymerase binds to a specific region of DNA, known as the promoter, and begins to move along the DNA strand, unwinding the double helix and adding nucleotides to the growing RNA strand. The RNA molecule is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction, complementary to the DNA template strand. Once the RNA polymerase reaches the termination sequence, it releases the newly synthesized RNA molecule, which may undergo further processing, such as the removal of noncoding sequences or the addition of a 5' cap and a poly(A) tail. Therefore, the correct answer is option A: "a new RNA molecule is synthesized using a DNA template."
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Why might a state choose a federal type of government? the state has a need for tight control over local affairs. The state has a compact size. The state has little autonomy for different regions. The state has a homogeneous culture. The state has a large country with diverse people
The most likely reason a state would choose a federal type of government is if it has a large country with diverse people. Federalism allows for a division of powers between the central government and the states.
In this case, a federal system can help to balance power between the central government and regional or state governments, allowing for greater representation and autonomy for different regions and cultural groups. It can also help to prevent one group or region from dominating the political landscape and ensure that decisions are made with the input and consent of a variety of stakeholders. In contrast, a state with a homogeneous culture or compact size may not require such a complex system of government, while a state with a need for tight control over local affairs may prefer a unitary system with more centralized authority.
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Fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration that occurs in yeast and bacteria. What is the function of fermentation?
Fermentation is an anaerobic respiration type that happens in yeast and bacteria. The function of fermentation is: to produce energy without utilizing oxygen.
The term “anaerobic” means “without oxygen” and is usually carried out when there is insufficient oxygen available for aerobic respiration. An example of fermentation can be seen in the process of making bread. Yeast cells undergo anaerobic respiration to release energy, which is used to make carbon dioxide gas.
This carbon dioxide gas is what causes the bread to rise. Another example of fermentation is the production of alcohol (ethanol) from glucose. During the process, the glucose molecule is broken down into pyruvate molecules, which are then converted into ethanol.
The primary benefit of fermentation is that it allows cells to continue to produce ATP even when there is a lack of oxygen. Although fermentation is not as efficient as aerobic respiration, it is still capable of generating energy for cells in the absence of oxygen.
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What is it called when action potentials jump?
The phenomenon in which action potentials jump is called Saltatory conduction. When electrical signals travel along neurons, the speed of the transmission can vary.
Myelination, which is the fatty insulation that covers axons and speeds up electrical signaling in neurons, is one of the factors that can influence this speed. As a result, myelinated neurons with larger diameters conduct electrical impulses more quickly than unmyelinated neurons with smaller diameters.
Saltatory conduction is the process by which action potentials jump between nodes of Ranvier, the bare areas between myelin segments on axons, in myelinated axons, rather than traveling the full length of the axon. This jumping motion enables the impulse to travel more quickly and more efficiently down the length of the axon.
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You and a friend are debating the pros and cons of cooking in a convection oven or
using the heat from a fireplace. Compare and contrast the movement of heat in the
convection oven and a fireplace and identify the kind of heat transfer occurring in
both systems.
In a convection oven, a fan circulates hot air around the food or object, creating a convection current that evenly distributes the heat.
In a fireplace, heat is transferred by radiation and convection. The fire radiates heat in all directions, which is absorbed by the objects in the room, including the walls, furniture, and people.
How does heat convection work?The hot air rises and the cool air sinks, creating a continuous cycle of heat transfer. This is a form of convection heat transfer.
The hot air rises and escapes through the chimney, drawing cool air into the fireplace to be heated. This is a combination of radiation and natural convection heat transfer.
The pros of cooking in a convection oven are that it cooks food faster and more evenly, uses less energy, and can cook multiple dishes at once. The cons are that it can be more expensive to purchase, may require special cookware, and can dry out certain foods.
The pros of using a fireplace to heat a room are that it creates a cozy atmosphere, can be less expensive than other heating methods, and can provide heat during a power outage. The cons are that it can be messy, requires regular cleaning and maintenance, and can be a fire hazard if not used properly.
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what 2 properties of the mitochondrial inner membrane allow it to have unusually high metabolic activity?
The two properties of the mitochondrial inner membrane that allow it to have unusually high metabolic activity are the presence of folds called cristae and a high concentration of electron transport chain proteins.
What is the mitochondrial inner membrane?The mitochondrial inner membrane is a very specific membrane that surrounds the mitochondrial matrix, which is where the Krebs cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, and electron transport chain happen.
This membrane is crucial to the metabolic activity of the mitochondria because it is where the vast majority of the ATP that the cell requires is produced. It's also home to the electron transport chain, which is where the vast majority of energy is produced.
The mitochondrial inner membrane is very different from the outer membrane, which is a more porous membrane that helps to maintain the shape of the mitochondria.
The inner membrane, on the other hand, has a variety of specific characteristics that help it to carry out its metabolic function.
What two properties of the mitochondrial inner membrane allow it to have unusually high metabolic activity?There are two key properties of the mitochondrial inner membrane that allow it to have unusually high metabolic activity.
First, the inner membrane has folds called cristae that greatly increase its surface area. This increased surface area allows the inner membrane to hold more of the electron transport chain proteins that are responsible for producing energy.
This, in turn, allows the mitochondria to produce more ATP than it would be able to otherwise.
Second, the inner membrane is home to a high concentration of electron transport chain proteins, which are the proteins responsible for generating the vast majority of the energy that the cell requires.
This high concentration of electron transport chain proteins allows the mitochondria to produce energy at a much higher rate than it would be able to otherwise.
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your white blood cells that fight bacterial infections and attack viruses are called: your white blood cells that fight bacterial infections and attack viruses are called: telomeres. lymphocytes. glucocorticoids. cortisols. teratogens.
Lymphocytes are the white blood cells in your body that fight viruses and bacteria.
What do B lymphocytes deliver that battle bacterial contaminations?Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, are produced by B lymphocytes. These proteins adhere to particular antigens. After they're made, antibodies typically stay in our bodies in the event that we need to battle a similar microorganism once more.
Are antibodies that combat T lymphocytes produced by B lymphocytes present?The two primary types of lymphocytes are: T cells as well as B cells Antibodies produced by B cells are utilized to combat pathogens, viruses, and toxins. The T cells kill the body's own cells that have become cancerous or infected with viruses.
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1explain why the delay between muscle stimulation and load movement became longer asthe load became heavier in the experiment. how well did the results compare with yourprediction?
The delay between muscle stimulation and load movement became longer as the load became heavier in the experiment because it takes more time for the muscles to generate enough force to move a heavier load.
The results of the experiment compared well with the prediction, since the prediction was that the delay would increase as the load became heavier.
The delay between muscle stimulation and load movement became longer as the load became heavier in the experiment due to the increased tension within the muscle fibers. The muscle needs to generate more force to move the heavier load, and it takes longer for the muscle fibers to generate that force. The results were in line with the prediction, as it was expected that heavier loads would require more time for the muscle fibers to generate sufficient force to move the load.
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Does bone thickness determine bone strength?
Answer: Bone strength is determined by bone geometry, cortical thickness and porosity, trabecular bone morphology, and intrinsic properties of bony tissue
Explanation: Bone strength is indirectly estimated by bone mineral density (BMD) using dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA).
Answer: Yes and no
Explanation:
a dna sequence can be represented as a string of the letters actg (short for adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine). (a) how many dna sequences are exactly 22 letters long? (b) given a dna sequence of length 22, how many single letter mutations are possible? (c) given a dna sequence of length 22, how many double letter mutations are possible?
a. There are 4^22 possible DNA sequences that are exactly 22 letters long.
b. Given a DNA sequence of length 22, there are 22 possible single letter mutations.
c. Given a DNA sequence of length 22, there are 462 possible double letter mutations.
(a) To see why, note that there are four possible letters (A, C, T, and G) for each of the 22 positions in the sequence. Therefore, the total number of possible sequences is 4 x 4 x 4... (22 times) = 4^22.
(b) To see why, note that for each position in the sequence, there are three possible mutations that could occur (e.g., A could mutate to C, G, or T). Therefore, the total number of possible single letter mutations is 22 x 3 = 66.
(c) To see why, note that there are 21 possible pairs of adjacent positions in the sequence (positions 1 and 2, positions 2 and 3, and so on up to positions 21 and 22). For each pair, there are 9 possible double mutations that could occur (e.g., AC could mutate to AG, AT, CA, CC, CG, CT, GA, GC, or GT). Therefore, the total number of possible double letter mutations is 21 x 9 = 189. However, we must multiply by 2 to account for the fact that the mutation could occur in either order (e.g., AC to AG or CA to CG). Thus, the total number of possible double letter mutations is 189 x 2 = 378.
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Which two molecules are produced by the photosynthetic electron transport chain and used in the Calvin cycle?O ATPO BPGO NADHO APGO GPG
The two molecules produced by the photosynthetic electron transport chain and used in the Calvin cycle are ATP and NADPH.
During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, electrons from water molecules are used to generate ATP and NADPH through a series of redox reactions in the electron transport chain. These energy-rich molecules are then used in the light-independent reactions, also known as the Calvin cycle, to fix carbon dioxide into glucose.
In the Calvin cycle, ATP and NADPH are used to power the reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates. Therefore, ATP and NADPH are essential for the process of photosynthesis, and the products of the electron transport chain are critical for the production of glucose.
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what kind of bond is bond holds together amino acids?
The bond that holds together amino acids is called a peptide bond. Amino acids are organic compounds made up of an amino group (-NH2) and a carboxyl group (-COOH).
The bond that links amino acids together in a protein is a peptide bond. The process of peptide bond formation is known as peptide synthesis or condensation reaction, which involves the removal of a water molecule from two amino acids.
This process results in a bond between the carbon atom of the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the nitrogen atom of the amino group of another amino acid. Peptide bonds are covalent bonds that are relatively strong and require a lot of energy to break.
The peptide bond's stability is critical to the formation of the protein's tertiary and quaternary structure, which are critical to its function. In conclusion, peptide bonds are the type of bond that holds amino acids together.
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which of the following should you avoid to limit the spread of antibiotic resistance among pathogenic bacteria? select one: a. getting vaccinated b. saving leftover antibiotics to take for your next illness c. taking the full course of an antibiotic when it is prescribed d. good hygiene and sanitation
Good hygiene and sanitation are important measures to limit the spread of antibiotic resistance among pathogenic bacteria.
This includes washing hands regularly and properly disposing of soiled tissues and other materials, as well as avoiding contact with potentially contaminated surfaces. This helps to reduce the spread of bacteria and prevent antibiotic resistance from spreading further.
To limit the spread of antibiotic resistance among pathogenic bacteria, saving leftover antibiotics to take for your next illness should be avoided.
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The diagram is a cladogram that shows evolutionary relationships among several animal species.
Consider the clade that contains the lizard and wallaby but not the other animals listed in the diagram. What properties are common to all
of the members of this clade?
OA. Clade members physically resemble either lizards or wallabies, and they may or may not resemble other animals.
B. Clade members develop from an amniotic egg, and they may or may not use mammary glands to feed their young.
OC. Clade members have four limbs, and they may or may not develop from an amniotic egg.
D. Clade members develop from an amniotic egg, but they do not use mammary glands to feed their young
Properties common to all of the members of this clade : B.) Clade members develop from amniotic egg, and they may or may not use mammary glands to feed their young.
Considering the clade of lizard and wallaby, what properties are common to all members of this clade?Clade members develop from amniotic egg, and they may or may not use mammary glands to feed their young.
This is because the lizard and wallaby are both amniotes, which means that they develop from amniotic egg that is surrounded by a fluid-filled membrane. This is a characteristic shared by all amniotes, including birds, reptiles, and mammals.
While wallabies are marsupials and give birth to relatively undeveloped young that complete their development in a pouch, lizards are not mammals and do not have mammary glands to feed their young.
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what percentage of females are typically tuskless in an elephant population less affected by poaching? How does this compare to the populations studied by joyce poole?
The majority of African elephants have tusks, although approximately 6% of females in a group never develop them. Mature males without tusks are quite uncommon.
In contrast, 33% of females between the ages of 10 and 20 and 50% of females beyond the age of 20 lack tusks in Mozambique's Gorongosa National Park. There has never been a male without tusks in the park, indicating that tusklessness is a sex-related characteristic.
According to the New York Times, this finding shows that the tusklessness mutation may result in the death of male elephants. The scientists estimated that before the battle, 18.5% of female elephants lacked tusks. Tusklessness in elephant populations that have been well-protected can be as low as 2%. The majority of females in Gorongosa today lack tusks.
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how does abrasion break down rock on earth’s surface?