Answer:
Explanation:
How to perform perineal care
Gather supplies.
Provide privacy for the patient.
Wash hands and put on gloves.
With the patient on their back, instruct them to open their legs.
Cleanse the perineum, using front to back motions. ...
Never wash back to front; this causes contamination and can cause infections
A newborn has been diagnosed with a congenital heart disease. Which congenital heart disease is associated with cyanosis
Answer:
Cyanotic congenital heart disease
explain the public health approach for teenage pregnancy
severe form of senile dementia that may be due to a defect in the neurotransmitter system is called:
Answer: alzheimer's disease (AD)
Explanation: cortical destruction causes multiple degrees of confusion, loss of memory, and other cognitive defects. alzheimers; progressive deterioration that can happen in middle or old age, due to generalized degeneration of the brain.
What is usually the best recommendation a coach should make for an athlete with a nutrient deficiency
Procedures of pressure area care
Answer:
Caring for a Pressure Sore
For a stage I sore, you can wash the area gently with mild soap and water. ...
Stage II pressure sores should be cleaned with a salt water (saline) rinse to remove loose, dead tissue. ...
Do not use hydrogen peroxide or iodine cleansers. ...
Keep the sore covered with a special dressing
Explanation: hope this help:)
Magazines such as Fitness, Field & Stream, Golf Digest, and Health focus on how people live their lives, and thus all use a ________ segmentation strategy.
Answer:
the answer should be psychographic!!
Explanation:
Drug administration route with insertion of suppositories: a.Parenteral b.Rectal c.Inhalation d.Oral e.Topical
Drug administration route with insertion of suppositories: Rectal. The correct option is b.
What are the types of drug administration?
There are different types of drug administration
Inhaled routeIntravenous routeIntramuscular routeSubcutaneous routeVaginal routeThe insertion of suppositories is done by rectal route.
Thus, the correct option is b. Rectal.
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In the year of ________, fetal alcohol syndrome was first officially established as a medical condition.
Answer:
1973
Explanation:
The diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) was invented in 1973.
A 3-year old child recently underwent a splenectomy. Previous to the surgery, the child was up to date on all pediatric vaccinations. According to the CDC, which of the following vaccines should be recommended?
Answer:
Pneumococcal, meningococcal, and Haemophilus influenzae (Hib) vaccinations.
Explanation:
Immunization against encapsulated bacterial pathogens decreases the incidence of post-splenectomy sepsis. Pneumococcal, meningococcal, and Haemophilus influenzae (Hib) vaccinations are indicated for patients after splenectomy. These immunizations should be given at least 14 days before a scheduled splenectomy, or given after the fourteenth postoperative day (strength of recommendation [SOR]: A,based on systematic review of RCTs for the pneumococcal vaccine; SOR: B, based on systematic review of clinical trials for meningococcal and Hib vaccines).
Pneumococcal,meningococcal, and Haemophilus influenzae (Hib) vaccinations are given to the child who is underwent a splenectomy.
What is immunization?Immunization is defined as a process by which a person becomes safe and protected against a disease through vaccination.
In the process of immunization a vaccine is given to the person in order to protect them against disease and to boost up the immunity.
Pneumococcal, meningococcal, and Haemophilus influenzae vaccinations are administered to the patients after splenectomy.
These immunization must be given at least 14 days before the procedure of splenectomy or after the 14th postoperative day.
Therefore,pneumococcal,meningococcal, and Haemophilus influenzae (Hib) vaccinations are given to the child who is underwent a splenectomy.
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You have just given 2.5 tablet(s) with a dosage strength of 10 mg each. What was the total dosage administered
The newest emergency contraceptive pill (ECP), ella, can prevent pregnancy if taken within __________.
3. In Joule's experiment, an insulated container contains 20 kg of water initially at 25 C It is stirred by paddles submerged in the water. The paddles are made to turn by a slowly falling body weighing 40000 g through a height of 4m. This process was repeated a total of 400 times. What is the final temperature of the water due to the work done by the paddles ?
Answer:
34.4
Explanation:
How much force does it take to cause shaken baby syndrome?.
Answer:
Explanation:
The injuries seen in cases of SBS/AHT are caused by violent shaking and, in some cases, impact. This is due to the rapid and repeated acceleration and deceleration of the victim’s head whipping back and forth and side to side. Shaking injuries are not caused by casual or accidental handling of children. Shaking injuries require massive, violent force. One shake is all it takes to cause traumatic brain injuries in an infant.
What part of the male reproductive system conducts both semen and urine?.
The Elder Just Act of 2010 is:
A set of rules that must be followed for feeding residents
Guidelines for reporting suspicions of a crime against an older adult
Tells how to care for an elder in nursing homes
Gives requirements for reporting abuse within one week
Answer:
Gives requirements for reporting abuse within one week.
A client self identifies as a member of the Jewish faith. When discussing diet and food preferences with the client, which assessment would be useful
When discussing diet and food preferences with the client, a useful assessment would be dietary restrictions due to their religion.
What can Jews not eat?Jews do not eat
PorkHorseCamelRabbitCrabLobster and Shrimp.In fact, with the exception of fish with scales, no seafood is allowed. There is also a ban on mixing milk and meat. There must be a space of six hours between foods from a source.
With this information, we can conclude that when discussing diet and food preferences with the client, a useful assessment would be dietary restrictions due to their religion.
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What is the process of making the initial decision that information could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable damage to national security called?
Answer:
Explanation:
original classification as “the initial decision that information could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable damage to national security if subjected to unauthorized disclosure.”
The process of making the initial decision that information could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable damage to national security is called secret confidentiality.
What is National security?National security may be defined as the process of preventing and securing the own country from any act of attack or violence.
The act of secret confidentiality is associated with the affection of original classification if it is subjected to the category of unsanctioned declaration.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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When does a crime scene investigator begin reconstructing a scene?
When the investigator first walks through the crime scene.
When collecting trace evidence.
Jy
After lab analysis of collected evidence is returned.
Once a suspect has been identified.
A crime scene investigator begin reconstructing a scene, When collecting trace evidence.
What is reconstruction of the crime scene?Forensic crime scene reconstruction is the method of selecting the sequence of events that happened during and after a crime.
Crime sets may be reconstructed through the study and understanding of scene designs and the examination of physical evidence.
Thus, option "B" is correct, When collecting trace evidence.
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What are the specific strategies you believe would be useful in ensuring the development of an evidence-based practice improvement plan that is inclusive of multiple members of the interdisciplinary team?
Answer:
Answer: all members are working toward a common goal
Explanation:
All members are working towards a common goal. The interdisciplinary team must include teamwork and effective leadership qualities.
What are interdisciplinary qualities?Growing Effective interdisciplinarity is supported by the following ten qualities: Individual qualities that support interdisciplinary teamwork, a supportive team climate, effective leadership, and management skills.
Communication strategies and structures, personal rewards, training, and development, appropriate resources and procedures, an appropriate skill mix, clarity in one's goals, the quality and outcomes of care, and respect for and understanding of roles.
Therefore, All members are working towards a common goal. The interdisciplinary team must include teamwork and effective leadership qualities.
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Where would you not find a cholinergeric nicotinic receptor?.
Answer:
Explanation:
You would not find a cholinergic nicotinic receptor on parasympathetic target organs.
According to this, you would not find a cholinergic nicotinic receptor on parasympathetic target organs. They have two types Nm and Nn.
What do you mean by the Cholinergic nicotinic receptor?The somatic and autonomic nervous systems use cholinergic receptors to transmit neural signals. N1 and N2 are the two subtypes of the nicotinic receptor.
While N2 is recognized as the central or neuronal receptor subtype, N1 may also be referred to as the muscle or peripheral receptor type.
In addition to the endogenous neurotransmitter ACh, nicotine also activates them.
The brain's cholinergic system has a role in controlling attention and higher-order cognitive functions.
Therefore, according to this, you would not find a cholinergic nicotinic receptor on parasympathetic target organs. They have two types Nm and Nn.
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A client presents with an infection in the area between the internal and external sphincters. In which chronic disease is this condition commonly seen
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has asthma about the use of a metered-dose inhaler.
What is the likely result of using an out-of-network provider for routine health services?.
For individuals with arthritis, a training session may have been too intense and may need to be modified if the client:
Answer:
For individuals with arthritis, a training session may have been too intense and may need to be modified if the client: Seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, seated on a physioball, standing on the floor single leg, standing on a bosu ball.
Explanation:
I had this question before and that was the answer my teacher confirmed
Kwashiorkor and marasmus: a. are highly infectious diseases seen in toddlers b. are more common than chronic malnutrition c. cause serious birth defects d. require different treatment strategies e. are caused by inadequate diet
Answer:
e. are caused by inadequate diet
Kwashiorkor and marasmus are caused by inadequate diet. Hence option e is correct.
What is diet?Diet is defined as the combination of foods that a certain group of people or other organisms normally eat. People can maintain their health and avoid certain chronic illnesses by having lean protein, veggies, and nuts in their diet on a daily basis.
The two main forms of severe protein-energy undernutrition that are recognized by healthcare providers across the globe are kwashiorkor and marasmus. Kwashiorkor is primarily a protein shortage, whereas marasmus is a deficiency of all macronutrients, including protein, carbs, and lipids. Two separate types of severe protein-energy undernutrition are marromus and kwashiorkor. Kwashiorkor is mostly a protein shortage, whereas marasmus is a lack of all macronutrients.
Thus, kwashiorkor and marasmus are caused by inadequate diet. Hence option e is correct.
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A client is placed on a low-sodium (500 mg/day) diet. Which client statement indicates that the nurse's nutrition teaching plan has been effective
the client nurse should has to do place on a high-sodium in their people
Which coping style/mechanism is typically associated with methods of dealing with the problem in order to reduce stress?
Problem-focused coping strategies
Emotion-focused mechanisms
Avoidant coping mechanisms
Maladaptive coping mechanisms
Answer:
Problem-focused coping strategies
Explanation:
How far back does a hair follicle drug test detect drugs?.
What are impacts to the cardiovascular system from high altitude?
Answer:
Explanation:
High-altitude exposure may unpredictably precipitate an acute coronary syndrome or death. Not only will sea level exercise capacity be reduced on account of physiological changes, but angina may worsen at least for the first few days in association with increased heart rate and systolic blood pressure.
he hypoxia of high altitude produces sustained stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system. Initially, this increases heart rate, but, with time, the responsiveness of the heart decreases, so the initial tachycardia may not be sustained.
What are the possible outcomes of selecting an antibiotic that is ineffective to treat a particular infection