Answer:
Air resistance opposes the force of gravity and causes falling objects to lose speed once they reach terminal velocity.
the f1 are crossed to short plants producing oval fruit. what are the expected percentages of progeny phenotypes? express your answers using two significant figures separated by commas. be sure to put the numbers in the same order as the list phenotypes.
When the F1 is crossed to short plants producing oval fruit, the expected percentages of progeny phenotypes are as follows: 50%, Oval fruit and tall plants25%, Oval fruit and short plants25%, Round fruit and tall plants
The cross between F1 (Tall and Round fruit) and short plants (Tall and Oval fruit) can be represented as: TT RR x tt rrTall (TT) and round (RR) are dominant traits, while short (tt) and oval (rr) are recessive traits. So the F1 generation will have the genotype TtRr.
When the F1 generation is crossed with the short and oval plants, the following punnett square can be formed:TtRr x tt rr. The progeny phenotypes and genotypes are: 1. Oval fruit and tall plants (TtRr) 2. Oval fruit and short plants (ttRr) 3. Round fruit and tall plants (TTRr) 4. Round fruit and short plants (Ttrr)As per the punnett square, the expected percentages of progeny phenotypes are as follows:50%, Oval fruit and tall plants25%, Oval fruit and short plants25%, Round fruit and tall plantsTherefore, the expected percentages of progeny phenotypes are 50%, 25%, and 25%.
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which medications act by inhibiting the adenosine 5- diphosphate pathway required for platelet aggregation
The medications that act by inhibiting the adenosine 5-diphosphate (ADP) pathway required for platelet aggregation are known as ADP receptor inhibitors.
These drugs target the P2Y12 receptor, which is a G protein-coupled receptor that is activated by ADP released from activated platelets. By inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, ADP receptor inhibitors can prevent platelet activation and aggregation, thereby reducing the risk of thrombosis. Examples of ADP receptor inhibitors include clopidogrel, prasugrel, and ticagrelor, which are commonly used in the treatment and prevention of cardiovascular disease, such as myocardial infarction and stroke. These drugs are often used in combination with other antiplatelet agents, such as aspirin, to provide more effective antithrombotic therapy.
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the biochemical process in which complex molecules are broken down into simpler ones and energy is released is referred to as a) anabolism. b) catabolism. c) digestion. d) metabolism. e) respiration.
The answer is b) catabolism.
Catabolism is the process by which large, complex molecules are broken down into simpler molecules and energy is released. This energy is used to power essential biological processes such as cell growth, tissue repair, and the production of new molecules.
Catabolism is the opposite of anabolism, which is the process of building up molecules from simpler molecules. Catabolism is essential for life, as the molecules it breaks down can be used to make new molecules the body needs and to provide energy for cellular activities.
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Which types of light are absorbed by genetic material? (check all that apply
I'm sorry that I keep giving you this question but I need somebody to answer it now
Answer:
I think the answer is ultraviolet (UV) light.
Explanation:
I hope this helps. Have a good day!
Answer:
Microwave,Radio, Visible, IR,
Explanation:
For UV it can be absorbed by generic skin cell materials
can you identify the molecules and processes involved in the flow of genetic information through a cell? drag the labels to the appropriate locations in the diagram. resethelp rna transcription dna protein translation
DNA is converted into RNA through a process called transcription. An enzyme known as RNA polymerase copies the DNA sequence into a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule during transcription.
In what molecules does the transmission of genetic information take place?The information contained in a gene's DNA is transferred to a molecule comparable to DNA called RNA (ribonucleic acid) in the cell nucleus during transcription. Nucleotides are a series of building units that make up both RNA and DNA.
How does genetic information go via cells?All live cells undergo transcription, the process by which genetic information moves from DNA to RNA and then to proteins. Despite the basic dogma's universality, there are significant differences in how information moves from DNA to proteins.
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a breeder of cattle has a herd of white cows and a roan bull. hair color in this breed is controlled by an incompletely dominant gene. the two homozygous forms are either red or white, and the heterozygous is roan. (a) what colors of calves are expected and in what proportions?
If the hair color in the breed is controlled by an incompletely dominant gene, the following proportions and colors of calves are expected:
(i) 1/4 will have a white coat color
(ii) 1/2 will have a roan coat color
(iii) 1/4 will have a red coat color
If hair color in this breed of cattle is controlled by an incompletely dominant gene with two homozygous forms (red and white) and one heterozygous form (roan), then the expected colors of the calves and their proportions can be predicted using Punnett square analysis.
First, we can assign the following genotypes to the parents:
White cows: ww (homozygous for the recessive white allele)
Roan bull: Rr (heterozygous for the incompletely dominant gene)
Using these genotypes, we can construct a Punnett square to determine the possible genotypes and phenotypes of their offspring:
R r
w | Rw Rr |
w | Rw Rr |
In this Punnett square, the possible genotypes of the offspring are Rw (heterozygous roan) and Rr (homozygous red). The corresponding phenotypes of these genotypes are white, roan, and red. Because the Rr genotype is homozygous, it will always produce red hair, while the Rw genotype will produce roan hair.
Therefore, the expected colors of the calves and their proportions are:
25% white (wwRw)
50% roan (wwRr or RwRw)
25% red (RrRw)
It's important to note that these proportions are theoretical and may not be precisely observed due to factors such as genetic variation and chance.
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several subsets of innate lymphoid cells (ilcs) have been identified that share their patterns of cytokine production with the known subsets of t cells. the combined activity of related ilc and t cell subsets is effective in eradicating pathogenic infections because:
The combined activity of related ILC and T cell subsets is effective in eradicating pathogenic infections because, the immune system can respond to pathogens through two principal means: the innate immune response and the adaptive immune response.
The innate immune response is the body's first line of defense against invading pathogens. Cells of the innate immune system, including neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells, and natural killer cells, recognize and destroy pathogenic microbes.
On the other hand, the adaptive immune response is a second line of defense that begins to form when the innate immune response is inadequate or is unable to eliminate the invading microorganisms. This reaction is also characterized by the specific recognition of antigens and the establishment of immune memory after the first infection.
The adaptive immune response is made up of B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes, which together have the potential to target a wide range of pathogens, including bacteria, fungi, viruses, and parasites.
Lymphocytes T are characterized into various subsets, including CD4+ T helper (Th) cells, CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs), and regulatory T (Treg) cells, which play important roles in regulating immune responses.
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Why do you think that it is necessary to use multiple cDNA libraries to aid in the identification of genes in the human genome?
Use multiple cDNA libraries to aid in the identification of genes in the human genome because more detailed comparison can be performed to gain information on the genes.
A cDNA library is a collection of cloned complementary DNA (cDNA) fragments that have been inserted into a variety of host cells to form a section of the organism's transcriptome and are kept as a "library." As cDNA is created from completely transcribed mRNA present in the nucleus, it only carries an organism's expressed genes.
Tissue-specific cDNA libraries can also be created. The cDNA created lacks introns and can easily be expressed in a bacterial cell because the mature mRNA is already spliced in eukaryotic cells. Despite the fact that gene products can be quickly identified thanks to information in cDNA libraries, these libraries don't provide information on the enhancers, introns, and other regulatory elements that may be discovered in a genomic DNA library.
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a group of individuals that can interbreed in nature and produce viable offspring would be considered to be a species according to the:
a. Phylogenic species concept
b. Biological species concept
c. Evolutionary species concept
d. Ecological species concept
e. General lineage concept
The biological species concept defines a species as a group of individuals that can interbreed in nature and produce viable offspring. Here option B is the correct answer.
This concept was first proposed by Ernst Mayr in 1942 and is widely used in biology and taxonomy to define and classify species. According to the biological species concept, individuals of the same species can breed and produce fertile offspring, while individuals of different species cannot.
This definition is based on the reproductive isolation that exists between different species, which is caused by genetic and behavioral differences that prevent successful interbreeding. Other species concepts exist, such as the phylogenetic, ecological, evolutionary, and general lineage concepts, which define species in different ways based on their evolutionary history, ecological niche, or genetic relationships.
However, the biological species concept is the most widely used and accepted in the scientific community, as it provides a clear and practical way to define and study species based on their reproductive biology and behavior.
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in a serial dilution: what is the individual dilution for a tube with 99 ml of water and 1ml of stock bacteria sample?
In a serial dilution, the individual dilution for a tube with 99 ml of water and 1ml of stock bacteria sample is 1:100.
The serial dilution is a scientific method used to dilute an original solution many times with the purpose of reducing its concentration to the point that it can be handled more easily or its concentration determined by testing. For instance, if an initial solution's concentration is very high, it may be diluted until its concentration is low enough to be read by an instrument or to be visually discernible.
A serial dilution technique is used to dilute a solution to a specified concentration. The solution is diluted serially by adding the same volume of diluent at each step. Assume that the concentration of the initial solution is 100%. With each dilution, the concentration decreases by a factor of 10. For instance, if the initial concentration is 100%, a 1:10 dilution would result in a concentration of 10%, a 1:100 dilution would result in a concentration of 1%, and so on.
In this instance, the volume of the initial solution is 1 mL, while the volume of the diluent is 99 mL. The dilution factor is calculated by dividing the volume of the initial solution by the volume of the diluent. As a result, the dilution factor in this example is 1:100 (1/100).
Therefore, the individual dilution for a tube with 99 ml of water and 1ml of stock bacteria sample is 1:100.
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What body part do humans have that is closely related to their membership in the chordate phylum?
brain stem
spinal chord
O
vocal chord
spleen
Answer:
The spinal cord
Explanation:
The nerve cord found in most chordate embryos develops into the brain and spinal cord, which compose the central nervous system.
the spinal column Most chordate embryos contain a nerve cord, which develops into the brain as well as the spinal cord, which together make the components of the central nervous system..
What the heck is an embryo?Early stages of human and other animal or plant development. This stage in creatures with a vertebrae or spinal column lasts from immediately after fertilization to the emergence of all main body parts.
Eggs alone or embryos as well?During embryo frozen, the eggs undergo fertilization with IVF before being flash frozen. During the course of many days, the fertilized eggs mature into embryos, and then they are flash frozen. Once more, when embryos are preserved at that low temperature, the health of the young, healthy eggs from which they were conceived is preserved.
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if an unreplicated linear chromosome goes through s phase, how many chromosomes are produced? how many dna molecules are produced?
If an unreplicated linear chromosome goes through S phase, it will produce 2 linear chromosomes and 2 DNA molecules.
The S phase, which stands for synthesis phase, is a phase of the cell cycle in which the DNA replication takes place. It is the second phase of interphase, and it takes place in the nucleus of the cell.
During the S phase, the DNA replication takes place, and the genetic information in the chromosomes is duplicated.
The process of DNA replication is semi-conservative, meaning that each parent strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand, resulting in two identical daughter DNA molecules.The end result of S phase.
In S phase, a single unreplicated linear chromosome will be replicated, resulting in two linear chromosomes and two DNA molecules.
This process ensures that the genetic information is accurately transferred from one cell generation to the next.
The correct answer is, If an unreplicated linear chromosome goes through S phase, it will produce two linear chromosomes and two DNA molecules.
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which of the following pairs is mismatched? group of answer choices reinfection- repeat infection by the same pathogen self-inoculation-infection spreads from one part of a person's body to a different area cross-infection-infection acquired directly from another person nosocomial infection-acquired outside the hospital
The mismatched pair is "cross-infection-infection acquired directly from another person nosocomial." Option c is the correct choice.
Cross-infection refers to the transfer of pathogens between patients, usually in a hospital or healthcare setting. It can also refer to the transmission of infection between different body sites of the same individual. Nosocomial infections are those that are acquired in a hospital or healthcare setting. So, cross-infection and nosocomial infection are related, but not the same thing.
The other options are correctly matched: reinfection is the repeat infection by the same pathogen, self-inoculation is the spread of infection from one part of a person's body to a different area, and infection acquired outside the hospital is a general term for infections that are not acquired in a healthcare setting. Hence, option c is correct.
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The trachea is part of the ______ respiratory system.
A) Upper
B) Lowe
The trachea is the part of Upper respiratory system.
What respiratory system component is the trachea?The windpipe is another name for the trachea. It is a crucial part of the respiratory system in your body. As you breathe in, air enters your lungs through your larynx. It then travels to your bronchi through your trachea.
What do the bronchi and trachea in the respiratory system do?Your trachea is where your left and right bronchi leave. The bronchi are the air passages to your lungs. The little sacs in your lungs called alveoli receive air through the bronchioles at the end of the bronchi. Alveoli in your body exchange gases.
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One way in which photosynthesis in a typical C4 plant differs from that in a C3 plant is that the C4 plant
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a. keeps its stomata more open so that more CO2 can enter the plant
b. avoids the use of rubisco entirely; instead, it uses PEP carboxylase to catalyze all carbon fixation
c. carries out the Calvin cycle only in the chloroplasts of bundle-sheath cells
d. actively pumps oxygen gas away from the cells that contain rubisco
One way in which photosynthesis in a typical C4 plant differs from that in a C3 plant is that the C4 plant is avoids the use of rubisco entirely; instead, it uses PEP carboxylase to catalyze all carbon fixation. The correct option is option B) avoids the use of rubisco entirely; instead, it uses PEP carboxylase to catalyze all carbon fixation.
The photosynthesis process is slightly different in C4 plants than in C3 plants. C3 plants directly capture carbon dioxide during photosynthesis through the Calvin cycle. C4 plants have two separate steps in their photosynthesis process, which allows them to photosynthesize more efficiently in high-light, high-temperature environments.
These C4 plants avoid the use of rubisco and instead use PEP carboxylase to catalyze all carbon fixation.
C3 plants are plants that use the C3 carbon fixation cycle to convert carbon dioxide (CO2) into an organic compound.
C4 plants are plants that use the C4 carbon fixation cycle to convert carbon dioxide (CO2) into an organic compound.
In C4 plants, the CO2 enters the leaves via the stomata and is then pumped into the mesophyll cells. Then, they are transformed into C4 acids, which are then transported to bundle sheath cells, where CO2 is again released and the Calvin cycle occurs.
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which ostrilopes were more likely to survive and become more common in the population? which ostrilopes were less likely to survive and become less common in the population?O There are fifteen poison levels shown, and each individual has a different amount of poison.
O There is one poison level shown, and all newts have the same amount of poison.
O There are three poison levels shown, and no poison-level trait is more common than the others.
O There are three poison levels shown, and one poison-level trait is the most common.
The ostrilopes were more likely to survive and become more common in the population and the ostrilopes were less likely to survive and become less common in the population is d. There are three poison levels shown, and one poison-level trait is the most common.
The population of ostrilopes that are most likely to survive and become more common in the population. The reason for this is that this characteristic is favored in natural selection since it enables the ostrilopes to avoid predators and therefore live long enough to produce offspring. These offspring will carry the advantageous trait, which will continue to spread in the population.
The ostrilopes that are less likely to survive and become less common in the population are those that do not possess this beneficial trait. This is because they are more susceptible to predator attacks, making them less likely to live long enough to reproduce, and therefore less likely to pass on their characteristics to the next generation. In conclusion, the ostrilopes that possess the most common poison-level trait are the ones that are more likely to survive and become more common in the population, while the ostrilopes that do not possess this trait are less likely to survive and become less common. The correct answer is there are three poison levels shown, and one poison-level trait is the most common.
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Circle the letter of each sentence that is true about the sense organs of fishes
A intestine or colon is a sensory organ made of tiny pores that can pick up on vibration and movement in the water around it. The lateral line, which is immediately below the skin, is made up of neuromasts.
What are the five senses that fish have?Like us, fish have the capacity to smell, tasting, feel, hear, for seeing. , and. Ask them to name the locations of their primary sensory organs. How many senses do the pupils believe fish possess?
What sense does a fish have?Fish have highly developed sensory organs for the most part. Almost all fish in the daytime have colour vision which is at least as excellent as that of a person (see vision in fishes). Chemoreceptors, which are the source of remarkable perceptions of taste and smell, are also present in many fish. Although having ears, some fish may not have particularly good hearing.
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certain compounds have a structure similar to normal dna bases and so can be incorporated into daughter strands during dna replication. these compounds are called base
Why do we dye our gels with Ethidium bromide or Gel Red dyes?
- these dyes stain the double stranded DNA in our gel
- these dyes will stain the proteins in our gel
- these dyes will only stain the single stranded RNAs in our gel
We dye our gels with Ethidium bromide or Gel Red dyes because these dyes stain the double-stranded DNA in our gel.
Ethidium bromide and Gel Red dyes are intercalating agents that bind to the double-stranded DNA in the gel, causing the DNA to fluoresce under ultraviolet light. This makes it easier to visualize the DNA in the gel and to determine the size and amount of DNA fragments. Ethidium bromide and Gel Red dyes are commonly used in molecular biology techniques such as gel electrophoresis, DNA sequencing, and PCR. These dyes are not used to stain proteins or single-stranded RNAs as they are specific for double-stranded DNA. Other dyes and stains are used for staining proteins and single-stranded RNAs.
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compare the growth of mutated cells with and without growth factors
Answer: Growth factors are signaling molecules that stimulate cell growth and division. In the presence of growth factors, mutated cells may grow and divide more rapidly than they would in the absence of growth factors. This can lead to the development of tumors and cancerous growths.
Without the presence of growth factors, mutated cells may still grow and divide, but at a slower rate. The absence of growth factors can limit the ability of mutated cells to form tumors or metastasize to other parts of the body.
In summary, the presence of growth factors can stimulate the growth and division of mutated cells, potentially leading to the development of cancer. In contrast, the absence of growth factors may limit the growth and spread of mutated cells.
Explanation:
4. (02.01 MC)
The state is planning on opening a mineral mine along a small mountain range, what ecosystem service might frequent hikers be most concerned with? (4 points)
Cultural
Provisioning
Regulating
Supporting
Answer: Cultural
Explanation:
Frequent hikers might be most concerned with the cultural ecosystem service. This service includes non-material benefits that people obtain from ecosystems, such as recreational activities, cultural and spiritual experiences, and aesthetic enjoyment. Hiking is a form of recreational activity that allows people to experience the beauty and uniqueness of natural landscapes. By opening a mineral mine in a small mountain range, there is a risk that the natural environment and scenic views of the area may be degraded or lost, which could negatively impact the cultural ecosystem service and the experiences of hikers.
articulations involve only the point of contact between bones and other bones. true/false
The statement " articulations involve only the point of contact between bones and other bones." is false. Because not only involve the point of contact between bones but also include the structures and tissues that surround and support the bones.
Articulations refer to the connections between bones, and these connections can involve not only the point of contact between bones and other bones, but also the point of contact between bones and cartilage or bones and teeth. Therefore, articulations do not involve only the point of contact between bones and other bones, and the statement in the question is false.
The connection between bones, ossicles, or other hard body components that makes up the skeletal system of an animal into a useful whole is known as a joint, articulation, or articular surface. They are built with various levels and styles of movement in mind. Some joints, including the knee, elbow, and shoulder, are practically frictionless, self-lubricating, and capable of withstanding compression and supporting enormous loads while yet allowing for fluid and accurate movement.
To safeguard the brain and the sensory organs, other joints, such as the sutures between the bones of the skull, allow very limited movement (just during birth).
Articulations, also known as joints, not only involve the point of contact between bones but also include the structures and tissues that surround and support the bones, such as ligaments, cartilage, and synovial membranes.
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muscles are composed of bundles of muscle fibers called muscle . the muscle fibers are composed of bundles of myofilaments called
Muscles are composed of bundles of muscle fibers called fascicles. The muscle fibers are composed of bundles of myofilaments called sarcomeres.
What are muscle fibers?
Muscle fibers are long, tube-shaped cells that are composed of myofibrils. Myofibrils contain two kinds of proteins called actin and myosin. These proteins help the muscle contract and relax. The smallest functional units of a muscle fiber are called sarcomeres.
What are sarcomeres?
Sarcomeres are composed of myofilaments called actin and myosin. These filaments slide past one another during muscle contraction and relaxation. Similarly, bundles of muscle fibers make up fascicles. Fascicles are organized by the body into muscles. Muscles are then responsible for generating movement in the body.
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which of the following is a symptom of potassium deficiency? group of answer choices extreme thirst muscle weakness profound sweating lowered blood pressure
The symptom of potassium deficiency is muscle weakness since potassium is responsible for bone strength hence lack of it causes the weakness.
Potassium deficiency, also known as hypokalemia, is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium, which is an essential mineral and electrolyte, is required for proper function in many body systems including the heart, muscles, and nerves.Symptoms of potassium deficiency include muscle weakness, fatigue, cramping, and constipation.
Potassium is necessary for proper muscle function, and low levels can lead to muscle weakness and cramping. Additionally, severe cases of hypokalemia can cause heart problems and even paralysis.To summarize, the symptom of potassium deficiency is muscle weakness.
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What is the CN covalent bond that is formed between the carboxyl group of an amino acid?
The covalent bond formed between the carboxyl group of an amino acid is a peptide bond, also known as a covalent amide bond. This bond is formed when the carboxyl group of one amino acid donates a proton to the amino group of another amino acid.
The two amino acids are then connected by a covalent bond and the two functional groups are held together in a single molecule. A peptide bond is a covalent bond that links amino acids together in a protein's primary structure. The peptide bond forms between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of the next.
The reaction results in a peptide bond and the release of water molecules. The following illustration shows a peptide bond between two amino acids: A peptide bond is formed between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of the next. As a result, a long chain of amino acids, also known as a polypeptide chain, is formed, which forms the basis of a protein's primary structure.
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extreme drought, heat, or cold can all cause cavitation of the xylem, which is when a bubble forms in the xylem, breaking the chain of cohesion. how do you think this will effect the plant?
Extreme drought, heat, or cold can cause cavitation of the xylem, which is when a bubble forms in the xylem, breaking the chain of cohesion. This can have a variety of effects on the plant, such as reducing the amount of water that can be drawn up by the xylem, leading to wilting, desiccation, and death in extreme cases.
Extreme drought, heat or cold can all cause cavitation of the xylem, which is when a bubble forms in the xylem, breaking the chain of cohesion. This will affect the plant in a number of ways.
The main function of the xylem is to transport water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the shoots and leaves of a plant. When the xylem experiences cavitation, it is unable to perform this function effectively. As a result, the plant may experience water stress and wilting. If the cavitation is severe, it can lead to the death of the plant.
Excessive heat or cold can also damage plant tissue, causing necrosis or cell death. This can lead to a reduction in plant growth and yield. In addition, extreme temperatures can also disrupt photosynthesis, the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy. Without sufficient energy, the plant will be unable to grow and develop properly.
Furthermore, cavitation can also lead to the formation of embolisms, which are air bubbles that can block the flow of water through the xylem. This can further exacerbate water stress and other negative effects on the plant. Overall, cavitation of the xylem can have significant negative effects on the growth, development, and survival of plants in extreme environmental conditions.
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what does cellular respiration release into the air?
Where does transcription and translation occur in prokaryotes eukaryotes?
As a result, in eukaryotes, translation takes place in the cytoplasm while transcription happens in the nucleus. In other words, eukaryotic transcription and translation occur in separate locations and times.
In eukaryotic organisms, translation takes place in the cytoplasm and endoplasmic reticulum while transcription takes place in the nucleus. Prokaryotes carry out both processes in their cytoplasm. In both transcription and translation, RNA polymerase and ribosomes are the active molecules.
In bacteria, transcription and translation can occur concurrently in the cytoplasm of the cell, but in eukaryotes transcription happens in the nucleus and translation occurs in the cytoplasm. As a result, in eukaryotes, translation takes place in the cytoplasm while transcription happens in the nucleus.
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explain how the farms upriver were adding to the high nitrate levels?
The farms upriver were adding to the high nitrate levels using nitrogen-based fertilizers.
Although nitrate is a naturally occurring substance that can be damaging to both the environment and human health, it is also prevalent in soil and water. High nitrate levels in water can be caused by agricultural activities, especially the usage of fertilisers.
Many farming practises upriver can contribute to elevated nitrate levels. Using fertilisers with a nitrogen base is one typical method. These fertilisers have high nitrogen content, which readily dissolves in water and is transported downstream. Some of the nitrogen in these fertilisers, which are applied to fields by farms, is absorbed by crops, but a large amount of it may seep into the soil and groundwater. This may eventually enter rivers and streams, where it raises nitrate concentrations.
Animal excrement from farms upriver is another way that they may raise nitrate levels. Animals raised for food on farms create waste that is heavily nitrogen-rich. Although it can be utilised as fertiliser, this waste can potentially contaminate adjacent water sources if it is not properly managed. Animal faeces can leak into the soil and groundwater if it is not properly confined or cleaned, eventually finding its way into rivers and streams where it contributes to excessive nitrate levels.
Generally, farms upriver can increase the amount of nitrate in water by using fertilisers that include nitrogen and managing animal waste. With good management techniques, such as minimising the usage of fertiliser and caring for and containing animals, can help reduce these contributions and protect water quality.
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What sequences are in a cDNA but not present in genomic DNA a. polyA tail b. introns c. intergenic region d. exons
Intergenic regions are present in cDNA but not in genomic DNA. So the correct answer is option C.
Complementary DNA or cDNA is a type of DNA formed when an enzyme called reverse transcriptase converts mRNA molecules into DNA molecules. As a result, it comprises only protein-coding genes, lacks introns and regulatory sequences, and represents a snapshot of the expressed genes within a cell. CDNA is generated using the reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), a method that employs primers to identify the mRNA and generate a complementary DNA strand. Using this technique, scientists can isolate cDNA from a specific cell type or tissue, providing a representative snapshot of gene expression in that cell.
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