Write an explicit rule and recursive rule for a geometric sequence with a 2nd term of 6 and a 3rd term of 12.

Answer:

n = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{5}{15} = \frac{n}{9}[/tex]

Cross multiply

15n = 45

Divide

15n/15 = 45/15

n = 3

Answer:

You too!!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Its 53 because 1=1 and 2=2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

X = 2

equation x [tex]\leq[/tex] 2

Step-by-step explanation:

You Factor out the common term 2 which will look like [tex]\frac{2(2x+1)}{5} \leq 2[/tex]

You do this because if you multiply 2*2x and 2*1 you will get 4x+2

Now you will multiply 5 on both sides to turn it into an equation and not a fraction [tex](5)\frac{2(2x+1)}{5}\leq 2 (5)[/tex]

So you would cross out the 5 on the left and the 5 as the denominator to make this an equation and multiply 2 by 5 to get ten your equation will look like            [tex]2(2x+1)\leq 10[/tex]

So now that you have your equation you divide both sides by 2 [tex]\frac{2(2x+1)}{2} \leq \frac{10}{2}[/tex]

you cross out the 2 on the left and 2 as the denominator and divide 10 and 2 to get 5.         [tex]2x+1\leq 5[/tex]  

Now you subtract one from both sides    [tex]2x+1\leq 5\\-1=-1\\2x=4[/tex]

you'll get 2x=4

divide both sides by 2 to get x=2

To check you will insert 2 into the original equation [tex]\frac{4x+2}{5} \leq 2[/tex]

[tex]\frac{4(2)+2}{5} \leq 2 = \\\frac{10}{5} \leq 2=\\2\leq 2[/tex]

since the sign means less than or equal to 2 you can say that [tex]2\leq 2[/tex] is a correct inequality equation

Answer:

-2x-6y= -14 (i)

-6x-2y= -26 (ii)

Multiply eq (i) by 3

-6x-18y= -42 (iii)

-6x-2y= -26 (ii)

Subtract eq (iii) from ii

-6x -18y = -42

+6x+2y = +26

_______________

0 - 16y = -16

●y= 1

Put y =1 in eq 1

-2x -6 (1) = -14

-2x = -14 + 6

-2x = -8

●x =4

x=4 y=1

BRAINLIST PLS

Answer:

$20

Step-by-step explanation:

Money paid with surcharge by 6 friends = $ 186

Money paid with surcharge by a friend = 186 ÷ 6 = $ 31

Money paid by each friend without surcharge = 31 - 11 = $ 20

Answer:

  CD = 32 units

Step-by-step explanation:

The midpoint divides the segment into congruent parts:

  CM = MD

  8(x -2) = 4(5x -16)

  2(x -2) = 5x -16 . . . . . . divide by 4

  2x -4 = 5x -16 . . . . . . . eliminate parentheses

  12 = 3x . . . . . . . . . . . . . add 16-2x to both sides

  4 = x . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . divide by 3

Then the segment measures are ...

  CM = 8(x -2) = 8(4 -2) = 16

CD is twice that length. CD = 32 units.

_____

Additional comment

There are many ways to solve equations like this. The one usually recommended is to simplify it first. That generally means eliminating parentheses and collecting terms. Doing that would give ...

  8x -16 = 20x -64

Since there is a common factor of 4 on both sides, we can divide by that, making the numbers smaller and eliminating one set of parentheses.

Of course, the properties of equality require that whatever operation you perform on one side of the equal sign must also be done on the other side. So "divide by 4" means "divide by 4 on each side of the equal sign."

Answer:

0.5844

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.5844 just use a calculator

Answer:

[tex]m[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Combine like terms

[tex]-3m+(-2x)+4m+2x[/tex]

[tex](-3m+4m)+(-2x+2x)[/tex]

[tex](1m)+(0)[/tex]

[tex]m[/tex]

Answer:

m

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify like-terms first:

-3m + (-2x) + 4m + 2x

m + (-2x) + 2x

Both x's cancel each other out, so you're left with:

m

50

If 10 is 20% of a number, we can multiply it by 5 to get the original number.

So 10 * 5 = 50, and 20% of 50 is 10.

I hope this helps! :)

14/99

Select 1 marble; the chance that it is white is 4/12. Select a 2nd marble; the chance that it is white is 3/11. Select a 3rd; the chance it is white is 2/10. Select a 4th; the chance it is red is 8/9. Select a 5th; the chance it is red is 7/8. The chance of getting this specific set of 5 marbles in this order is (4/12)×(3/11)×(2/10)×(8/9)×(7/8)=(2×7)/(11×10×9).

This specific set could occur in the permutation of 5 things taken 5 at a time where 3 are identical (white), and the other 2 are also identical (red). The formula for this is 5!/(3!2!)=10.

Combining the chance of getting white, white, white, red, red with the number of ways 3 white and 2 red could have been distributed in the draw of 5 marbles gives the answer:

{(2×7)/(11×10×9)}×10=14/99

A similar process will show that the chance of getting 5 red marbles is 7/99; 4 white and 1 red is 1/99; 2 white and 3 red is 42/99; and 1 white and 4 red is 35/99.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Use DESMOS.  See attached.

Answer:

14416

Step-by-step explanation:

youre welcome

Answer:

14416

Step-by-step explanation:

check the steps for answers

Answer:

I believe the answer is B. 80, -160

Step-by-step explanation:

The pattern involves multipling by -2 so the term after that would be 320!

Answer: 45.5/100 = 455/1000

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

45.5% in its simplest form is

[tex] \frac{91}{2} [/tex]

but 45.5% =

[tex] \frac{91}{2} \ \times 100 = \frac{91}{200} [/tex]

Answer:

-3

Step-by-step explanation:

slope formula is y2-y1 over x2-x1

if we plug in the values and solve, that gets you -3.

Answer:

-3

Explanation:

1-(-2) divided by 3-4

Answer:

like i said no graph i cant help

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-3/10+ 3/10

lcm=10

-3+3

______

10

=0/10 = 0

Answer:

-6/10

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps

0111100109090909099999999999999999

Answer:

The answer is no doubt about it

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

600 divided by 60 is 10

Answer:

Solve for the first variable in one of the equations, then substitute the result into the other equation.

Point Form:  ( 3 , 14 )

Equation Form:  x  =  3 , y  =  14

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

For lines to be parallel, only their y-intercepts have to be different.

Answer:

3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

19.59≈20

Step-by-step explanation:

Have a nice day

Using Pythagoras Theorem we can find the 3rd side of a right angled triangle.

Steps are there in the image I attached.

Hope it helps you...

Please mark as Brainlliest!!!

Answer:

The formula for the area of a hexagon is Area = (3√3 s2)/2; where 's' is the length of one side of the regular hexagon. The formula for the area of a hexagon can also be given in terms of the apothem as, Area of hexagon = (1/2) × a × P; where 'a' is the length of the apothem and 'P' is the perimeter of the hexagon.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

Area of the triangle

[tex] = {105m}^{2} [/tex]

Base of the triangle

= 15m

Let,

Height of the the triangle be h

Therefore,

By the problem,

[tex] = > \frac{1}{2} \times base \times height = 105[/tex]

[tex] = > \frac{1}{2} \times 15 \times h = 105[/tex]

[tex] = > h = \frac{105 \times 2}{15} [/tex]

=> h = 7 × 2

=> h = 14m

Hence,

The req. height of the triangle is 14 m (Ans)

Answer:

The answer is 14 m.

Step-by-step explanation:

Area = [tex]105^{2}[/tex]

Base = 15 m.

Height = ?

The formula for finding the area of triangle is

[tex]A = \frac{h_{b}b}{2}[/tex]

Put the values in the formula

[tex]105 = \frac{h_{b}15 }{2}[/tex]

Use MPE or Multiplication Property of Equality

210 = 15[tex]h_{b}[/tex]

Now use DPE or Division Property of Equality

[tex]\frac{210}{15} = \frac{15_{hb} }{15}[/tex]

14 = [tex]h_{b}[/tex]

The height of the triangle is 14 m.

To check, multiply the height and base to get the area.

14 * 15 = 105 [tex]m^{2}[/tex]

Answer:

You are correct

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

Ik it is cus ik my number lines

PLS MARK ME BRAINLIEST

Answer:

I think it's 8 I'm not sure