Without buying points, a monthly mortgage payment will be $1,250. buying 1 point at closing would reduce the payment to $1,236. to the nearest year, how long would it take to break even by buying 1 point, with a $100,000 mortgage? a. 5 years b. 6 years c. 7 years d. 8 years

Answer:

X = 81

Missing angle measurement = 73 Degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Sense the angle presented is a strait angle, meaning it has an exact mesurment of 180°

You can take the known portion of 107° and subtract that from 180°, giving you 73°

To find X you take the missing angle's value and add 8, leaving you with 81

Answer:

the answer is 12

Step-by-step explanation:

you toss the dice and coin let’s say it lands on 2 and heads there is one possibility. there is only 6 sides to the dice and 2 sides to a coin. 6 x 2 = 12.

Answer: coin = 26 sided die = 62 × 6 = 12

Step-by-step explanation: When you flip a coin there are two possible outcomes (heads or tails) and when you roll a die there are six outcomes(1 to 6). Putting these together means you have a total of 2×6=12 outcomes. The answer would be 12. Hope that helps!!

Answer:

12% :)

Step-by-step explanation:

0.12 x 100 = 12%

Have an amazing day!!

Please rate and mark brainliest!!

-17*C

Step-by-step explanation:

It's decreases so it's going to be colder

Start-8

1) - 9

2) - 10

3) - 11

4) - 12

5) - 13

6) - 14

7) - 15

8) - 16

9) - 17

Or

-8-9= - 17

Hope this helps!

Answer for 1st question:

The answer is A. 4/20

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of landing on a vowel would be 2/5.

The probability of landing on an even number would be 2/4.

Now we just need to solve the probability of landing on a vowel and an even number.

2/5 x 2/4 = 4/20.

Thereore, the probability of landing on a vowel and an even number is 4/20.

Answer for 2nd question:

The answer is B. 1/20

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of landing on a C would be 1/5.

The probability of landing on a 4 would be 1/4.

Again, we just need to solve the probability of landing on a C and a 4.

1/5 x 1/4 = 1/20.

Therefore, the probability of landing a C and a 4 is 1/20.

Answer:

60000

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20 i'ma say 20

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation

Answer:

239

Step-by-step explanation:

239 because do the answers in the parenthesis first then do the rest.

An equation is formed of two equal expressions. The equation that demonstrates the additive identity property is (7+4i)+0 = (7+4i).

An equation is formed when two equal expressions are equated together with the help of an equal sign '='.

The additive identity property states that any number when added to 0, the result is the number itself. Therefore, the equation that demonstrates the additive identity property is (7+4i)+0 = (7+4i).

Learn more about Equation:

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Answer: B on edge

Step-by-step explanation:

the slope goes by several names

• average rate of change

• rate of change

• deltaY over deltaX

• Δy over Δx

• rise over run

• gradient

• constant of proportionality

however, is the same cat wearing different costumes.

[tex]16x-20y=0\implies -20y=-16x\implies y=\cfrac{-16x}{-20}\implies y=\stackrel{\stackrel{m}{\downarrow }}{\cfrac{4}{5}}x \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ 25y=20x\implies y=\cfrac{20x}{25}\implies y=\stackrel{\stackrel{m}{\downarrow }}{\cfrac{4}{5}}x \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ y=0.8x\implies y=\cfrac{8}{10}x\implies y=\stackrel{\stackrel{m}{\downarrow }}{\cfrac{4}{5}}x[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

4.since two sides are congruent and two angles are equal so they are similar and we can say:

[tex] \frac{14}{42} = \frac{7}{x} \\ x = 21[/tex]

DF is 21

5.since two sides are congruent and two angles are equal so they are similar and we can say:

[tex] \frac{6}{9} = \frac{10}{x} \\ x = 15[/tex]

EF is 15

6.

[tex]since \: \: \frac{4}{20} = \frac{6}{30} \: \: so \: we \: can \: say \: they \: are \: similar \: so \: we \: have \\ \\ \frac{4}{20} = \frac{5}{x} \\ \\ x = 25[/tex]

DF is 25

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The dots make a trapozoid

Answer:

50 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

All of the angles in the picture need to add up to 180 degrees.

<TVU = 30 degrees, so the 3 remaining angles need to add up to 150 degrees.

<QVR is = to <RVS  and <RVS is = to <SVT, so all 3 angles are = to each other

<QVR = <RVS = <SVT

We have 150 degrees remaining & all 3 angles have to be the same, so each angle is 50 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

a.

[tex]f(2) = 0[/tex]

b.

[tex]f(x) = 4 \\ f(5) = 4 \\ x = 5[/tex]

c.

[—3,2] union [3.4, 4]

                                        Add the values together

                                                     8 + 9 + 4

                                                          21

Answer:

16

Explanation:

Let "x" be the number

===========

→ integers less than 17 are 16, 15, 14, 13, 12, 11, 10, 9, ...

⇒ integers are whole numbers, not negative, does not include decimals or fractions.

So,

16 is the largest integer which is less than 17

Answer:

See below ~

Step-by-step explanation:

Writing the equation

Solutions

Answer:

Other than your answer...

Step-by-step explanation:

5^6 x 5^5

48,828,125

5^2 x 5^9

hope this helps :)

Answer:

Option D: $32.50

Step-by-step explanation:

3 × 8.50 = 25.50

2 × 5 = 10

[25.50 + 10] - 3

[35.50] - 3

= $32.50

Answer:

D. 0

Step-by-step explanation:

|9 - 5| = |4|, which equals 4. |5 - 9| = |-4|, which also equals 4.

4 - 4 = 0.

If your answer is in absolute value and it is negative, the outcome will always be positive. Hope this helps.

Answer:

8 bracelets

Step-by-step explanation:

Each time when we we cut the ribbon for making a ribbon, the length will be reduced. So, repeated subtraction is division.

To find the number of bracelets, divide the total length of the ribbon by the length required for making a bracelet.

Fraction division:

Use KCF method

Step1: Keep the first fraction

Step2: Change division to multiplication

Step3: Flip the second fraction

Number of bracelets = total length ÷ length required for making a bracelet.

                                  [tex]= 5\dfrac{1}{3} \div \dfrac{2}{3}\\\\= \dfrac{16}{3} \div \dfrac{2}{3}\\\\= \dfrac{16}{3}*\dfrac{3}{2}\\\\= 8[/tex]

Answer:

4 + 16n

Step-by-step explanation:

4 (1 + 4n)

Use the distributive property & expand the expression .

= (4*1) + (4*4n)

= 4 + 16n

________

Hope it helps ⚜

Answer:

[tex]\Longrightarrow: \boxed{\sf{4+16n}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the distributive property.

Distributive property:

⇒ A(B+C)=AB+AC

Multiply expand.

4*1=4

4*4n=16n

Rewrite the expression down.

= 4+16n

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any questions.

Answer:

Explanation:

[tex]\sf \dfrac{20}{32} = \dfrac{20}{32} \ \div \ 1 = \dfrac{20\div 4}{32 \div 4} = \dfrac{5}{8}[/tex]

Follow the sequence. and divide the multiply the following fraction.

=======

Answer:

[tex]\sf \dfrac{20}{32}=\dfrac{20}{32} \div 1=\dfrac{20 \div 4}{32 \div 4}=\dfrac{5}{8}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

When reducing fractions to their simplest equivalent, we need to divide the numerator and denominator by their highest common factor.

Factors of 20:   1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20

Factors of 32,    1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32

Therefore, the highest common factor is 4.

[tex]\sf \dfrac{20}{32}=\dfrac{20}{32} \div 1=\dfrac{20 \div 4}{32 \div 4}=\dfrac{5}{8}[/tex]

Answer: b) slope: -1, y-intercept 12

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation here is in slope-intercept form (y=mx+b)

In slope-intercept form m is the slope and b is the y-intercept

m=-1 and b=12 so the answer is b

slope: -1, y-intercept: 12

Hope it helps.

Do comment if you have any query.

Answer:

x - 40

Step-by-step explanation:

3[tex]x[/tex] = 120

[tex]\frac{3x}{3\\}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{120}{3}[/tex]

[tex]x[/tex] = 40

By the Vertical Angle theorem,

    ⇒ [tex]3x = 120[/tex] ⇒ [tex]x = 40[/tex]

Thus x = 40

Hope that helps!

Using it's concept, it is found that there is a 0.79 = 79% probability that he or she is content with the vacation allowance.

A probability is given by the number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes.

In this problem, 500 - 105 = 395 out of 500 employees are content with the vacation allowance, hence:

p = 395/500 = 0.79.

There is a 0.79 = 79% probability that he or she is content with the vacation allowance.

More can be learned about probabilities at https://brainly.com/question/14398287

The value of logarithm expression 2log₅(5x³) + (1/3)log₅(x² + 6) is simplified as log₅[{25x⁶}{∛(x² + 6)}].

Logarithms are another way of writing exponent. A logarithm with a number base is equal to the other number. It is just the opposite of the exponent function.

The logarithmic expression is given as

[tex]2\log _55x^3 + \dfrac{1}{3} \log _5(x^2 +6)[/tex]

We know that formulas

[tex]a \log b = \log b^a\\\\\log a + \log b = \log ab[/tex]

Then we have

[tex]\rightarrow \log _5(5x^3)^2 + \log _5(x^2 +6)^{1/3}\\\\\rightarrow \log _525x^6 + \log _5\sqrt[3]{(x^2 +6)}\\\\\rightarrow \log _5 25x^6 (\sqrt[3]{(x^2 +6)})[/tex]

More about the logarithm link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/7302008

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Edge 2022

Answer:

it should be cost, because when there is more quantity of something there will be less price.

The time taken by Jill and Cheryl to double their money is 12 years and 18 years respectively.

Algebra is the study of mathematical symbols and the rule involves manipulating these mathematical symbols.

Jill invested $500 in an account with a compound interest rate of 6%.

Cheryl invests $600 in an account with a compound interest rate of 4%.

The number of years each doubles their money. Using the relation of 72.

[tex]\rm t = \dfrac{72}{r}[/tex]

where r is the interest rate and t be the time

The time for the Jill will be

[tex]\rm t = \dfrac{72}{6}\\\\t = 12\\[/tex]

The time for the Cheryl will be

[tex]\rm t = \dfrac{72}{4}\\\\t = 18\\[/tex]

More about the Algebra link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/953809