Place the following terms or examples within the correct category.
Hyaline Cartilage
Fibrocartilage
-Composes epiphyseal plates
-Attaches to ribs of sternum
-Forms articular cartilage
-Weight-bearing cartilage
-Withstands compression
-Forms intervertebral discs

Answers

Answer 1

Both hyaline and fibrocartilage are types of connective tissue that serve important functions in the body.

Hyaline Cartilage:

 Composes epiphyseal plates  Forms articular cartilage

 

Fibrocartilage:

    Attaches to ribs of sternum     Weight-bearing cartilage    Withstands compression    Forms intervertebral discs

Hyaline cartilage is found in many areas of the body, including the nose, trachea, and ends of long bones. It is characterized by its smooth, glassy appearance and ability to resist friction and wear. Hyaline cartilage forms articular cartilage, which covers the ends of bones at joints, and composes the epiphyseal plates, which enable longitudinal bone growth.

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a botanist travels to an area that has experienced a long, severe drought. while examining the bryophytes in the area, he notices that many are in the same life-cycle stage. which life-cycle stage should be the most common?

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The most common life-cycle stage that a botanist would likely observe in bryophytes after a long, severe drought is gametophyte. This is because in bryophytes, gametophytes are the dominant life-cycle stage in harsh environments with limited water availability. In these conditions, the sporophyte stage does not have the opportunity to develop and reproduce. .

To understand the life-cycle of bryophytes, it is important to first understand the differences between the sporophyte and gametophyte stages. The sporophyte stage is an asexual reproduction phase where a multicellular, haploid spore-producing structure develops on the gametophyte. The gametophyte stage is the sexual reproduction phase, where a multicellular, haploid structure develops and produces gametes (sperm and egg cells).

In harsher, drier conditions, the sporophyte stage has difficulty in developing and surviving due to limited water availability. As a result, the gametophyte stage has the advantage in that it is able to remain as the dominant life-cycle stage in such conditions. This is why the gametophyte stage is typically the most common after a long, severe drought.

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when assessing newborns for chromosomal disorders, which assessment would be most suggestive of a problem?

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when assessing newborns for chromosomal disorders, which assessment would be most suggestive of a problem?

answer:
low set ears

when a client receives vincristine, an antineoplastic agent that inhibits dna and protein synthesis, the client needs to be informed to report which symptoms that would be expected side effects of motor neuropathy? select all that apply.

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When a client receives vincristine, an antineoplastic agent that inhibits DNA and protein synthesis, they need to be informed to report any symptoms of motor neuropathy that may be expected side effects include: weakness, numbness or tingling in the hands or feet, loss of coordination, and difficulty walking.

Vincristine is an antineoplastic drug belonging to the vinka alkaloid group used for chemotherapy treatment of acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL), chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), Burkitt's lymphoma, and Hodgkin's and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Vincristine works by inhibiting cell division so that the growth of cancer cells in the body can be slowed or stopped.

When a client is taking vincristine, they need to be notified to report symptoms of motor neuropathy, the client will experience side effects such as hair loss, weakness, numbness or tingling in the hands or feet, loss of coordination, weight loss, dizziness, and difficulty walking.

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What is the “mitochondria” in a cell?


PLEASE ANSWER, I WILL GIVE YOU BRAINLIEST!

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Answer: Mitochondria (Mitochondrion / singular) are the power houses of a cell. This is where respiration happens. Respiration is a reaction that transfers energy for the organism.

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a group of genes with the same type of promoter, but scattered throughout the genome for a single function (e.g. nitrogen fixation ) is called a(n) .

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A group of genes with the same type of promoter, but scattered throughout the genome for a single function, such as nitrogen fixation, is called an operon.

An operon is a group of genes with the same type of promoter but dispersed throughout the genome for a single function (e.g. nitrogen fixation). The functional unit of prokaryotic transcription is the operon. The operon is a structure that includes a promoter (which binds RNA polymerase), an operator (which regulates gene expression by binding a repressor or activator protein), and a structural gene or genes that encode an enzyme required for a metabolic pathway.

An operon, sometimes known as a polycistronic mRNA, is a set of functionally linked genes that are regulated by the same promoter and operator and are transcribed into a single mRNA molecule. Operons are prevalent in prokaryotes and are rarely found in eukaryotes. Operons are related to gene regulation in prokaryotes, but they do not exist in eukaryotes.

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you have several tall pea plants in your garden and you would like to know if they are heterozygous (d/d). to what type of pea plant should you mate them to find out?

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If a person has several tall pea plants in their garden and would like to know whether they are heterozygous (D/d), the type of pea plant should you mate them to find out is homozygous recessive (d/d) pea plants. If the offspring of this cross are all tall and show the dominant phenotype, then the tall pea plants in the garden are most likely heterozygous (D/d).

If a person has several tall pea plants in their garden and would like to know whether they are heterozygous (D/d) or homozygous dominant (D/D), they should mate them with homozygous recessive (d/d) pea plants. If the offspring of this cross are all tall and show the dominant phenotype, then the tall pea plants in the garden are most likely heterozygous (D/d). The reason for this is that tallness is a dominant trait in pea plants, and so a plant that is homozygous dominant (D/D) or heterozygous (D/d) will show the tall phenotype.

A plant that is homozygous recessive (d/d), on the other hand, will only show the tall phenotype if it is crossed with a homozygous dominant (D/D) or heterozygous (D/d) plant. If a plant that is heterozygous (D/d) is crossed with a homozygous recessive (d/d) plant, then half of the offspring will be heterozygous (D/d) and half will be homozygous recessive (d/d).

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When configuring the background color of an element, the background color is applied to both the content and the ______ areas.

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Answer:

When configuring the background color of an element, the background color is applied to both the content and the PADDING areas.

does the lack of any endpspores in the bacillus subtilis preparation necessarily mean the bacteria cannot prduce them

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The absence of endospores cannot be used as a definitive indicator of the ability of Bacillus subtilis to produce them.

No, the lack of any endospores in the Bacillus subtilis preparation does not necessarily mean the bacteria cannot produce them. This is because endospores are a survival mechanism and are not always present in all cells of a bacterial population. In Bacillus subtilis, the production of endospores occurs in response to unfavorable environmental conditions such as nutrient depletion, high temperature, and pH changes. When conditions become unfavorable, the vegetative cell undergoes a series of transformations and finally forms an endospore that is resistant to harsh environmental conditions. In addition, the production of endospores is a highly regulated process that involves the expression of many genes. Thus, the lack of endospores in a Bacillus subtilis preparation could be due to the absence of unfavorable environmental conditions or the suppression of endospore formation by regulatory mechanisms. However, the absence of endospores in a Bacillus subtilis preparation could also indicate that the culture is not pure or the growth conditions were not optimal.

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What is our weapon against infectious diseases? What was the first one created? When was it created?

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Our primary weapon against infectious diseases is vaccines. Vaccines are a type of medical intervention that can help prevent the spread of infectious diseases by triggering an immune response in the body that protects against future infections.

When a vaccine is administered, it typically contains a weakened or inactivated form of the virus or bacteria that causes the disease. This allows the body's immune system to recognize and build immunity to the disease, without causing illness.

English physician Edward Jenner invented the first vaccine in 1796. He noticed that milkmaids who had the comparatively mild sickness known as cowpox appeared to be immune to the far more serious and fatal disease known as smallpox. An 8-year-old youngster was given the cowpox virus by Jenner after he collected a sample from a milkmaid. The youngster experienced a slight case of cowpox but rapidly recovered. The boy was then exposed to smallpox by Jenner, but he escaped infection. The first vaccine and the idea of vaccination were both developed as a result of this experiment.

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Explain several things that can affect the level of the water table.

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Answer:

Droughts, seasonal variations in rainfall, and pumping affect the height of the under groundwater levels.

Explanation:

If a well is pumped at a faster rate than the aquifer around it is recharged by precipitation or other underground flow, then water levels in the well can be lowered.

the first anatomical region in the auditory processing pathway to receive signals from both ears is the:

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The first anatomical region in the auditory processing pathway to receive signals from both ears is the: inferior colliculus.

The inferior colliculus is a small, oval-shaped nucleus located within the midbrain and is a component of the auditory pathway. It is responsible for processing and integrating auditory signals from both ears and sending them on to the superior colliculus, thalamus, and cortex for further processing.

The inferior colliculus is composed of several layers, each of which plays a role in auditory processing. The first layer, the external nucleus, receives sound from both ears and is responsible for localizing sound sources. The second layer, the intermediate nucleus, is responsible for integrating and encoding sound.

The third layer, the tuberculum posterius, receives information from the intermediate nucleus and relays it to the superior colliculus. The fourth layer, the brachium of the inferior colliculus, is responsible for sending auditory information to the thalamus and cortex.

The cortex then processes the information and sends it to the auditory cortex, where auditory perception and memory formation occurs. This entire process is referred to as auditory processing, and the inferior colliculus is the first anatomical region in the auditory pathway to receive information from both ears.

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an evolutionary splitting event that gives rise to a distinct daughter species but with the persistence of the ancestral form is called

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An evolutionary splitting event that gives rise to a distinct daughter species but with the persistence of the ancestral form is called speciation.

Speciation is closely related to evolution, both of which are processes of change that gradually, bit by bit, gradually, slowly but surely occur.

Speciation occurs when a population of a species becomes geographically or reproductively isolated and is unable to interbreed with other members of the same species. This can lead to the formation of new species. Speciation occurs when gene flow between populations that originally existed has effectively subsided and is due to an isolation mechanism. Other factors that can cause speciation are mutation, hybridization, and domestication.

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in one bacterial replication bubble, how many molecules of dna helicase migrate away from the origin of replication?

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In one bacterial replication bubble, only one molecule of DNA helicase migrates away from the origin of replication.

DNA helicase is an enzyme that helps to separate two strands of DNA during replication, transcription, or repair.

DNA helicase uses energy from the hydrolysis of nucleoside triphosphates (usually ATP) to break hydrogen bonds between base pairs in the DNA helix.

DNA helicase can be used to open up the DNA molecule, allowing other proteins to come in and start the replication process. It moves in the 5′ → 3′ direction.

The main functions of DNA helicase include separating the strands of double-stranded DNA (dsDNA), unwinding the helix, and making it accessible for copying by other enzymes.

DNA helicase is involved in several processes, including DNA replication, DNA repair, recombination, and transcription. The helicase enzyme travels in the 5′ → 3′ direction and unwinds the DNA double helix, allowing DNA polymerase to copy the exposed single-stranded DNA.

DNA helicase moves ahead of DNA polymerase, opening the helix as it goes along, and DNA polymerase copies the template strand, creating a new complementary strand.

Only one molecule of DNA helicase migrates away from the origin of replication in one bacterial replication bubble.

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blood tests can be used to confirm the diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis because of the detection of:

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Blood tests can be used to confirm the diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis because of the detection of antibodies and/or complement proteins in the blood.

Antibodies are immune proteins that form when the body is exposed to a foreign material, and complement proteins are part of the body's natural defenses that help fight against invading microorganisms. The presence of these proteins in the blood can indicate that the body is fighting an infection and that glomerulonephritis is the likely cause.

In addition, blood tests can also detect high levels of certain substances, such as blood urea nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, and potassium, which can indicate glomerulonephritis.

Elevated BUN levels can suggest impaired kidney function, while elevated creatinine and potassium levels can be indicative of glomerulonephritis. Finally, a blood test can also detect signs of infection, such as an elevated white blood cell count, which can point to glomerulonephritis.

In summary, blood tests can be used to confirm the diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis because of the detection of antibodies and/or complement proteins in the blood, as well as elevated levels of BUN, creatinine, potassium, and white blood cells.

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Define fertilization below and how plants fertilize

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Fertilization is the process by which the male and female gametes (reproductive cells) combine to form a zygote, which develops into an embryo. In plants, fertilization refers specifically to the fusion of the male and female gametes of the flower, resulting in the formation of a seed.

How do plants fertilize?

In plants, the male gamete is produced by the pollen grain, which contains two sperm cells, while the female gamete is produced by the ovule, which is located in the ovary of the flower.

When a pollen grain lands on the stigma (the receptive surface of the female reproductive organ), it germinates and sends out a pollen tube that grows down the style and reaches the ovary. One of the sperm cells is then released and fuses with the egg cell inside the ovule, forming a zygote.

The other sperm cell fuses with two polar nuclei to form a triploid cell, which develops into the endosperm, a nutrient-rich tissue that provides nourishment to the developing embryo.

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the population of humans on earth increased gradulaly unitil the nineteen centery, after which it increased exponitally due to the abaiblity of better medicicne and food prodict describe the kind of growth curve that human population has followed

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If the population of humans have increased exponentially due to availability of medicine and food, then The S growth curve is the growth curve that has been followed.

What is the growth curve about?

The kind of growth curve that human population has followed is an S-shaped logistic growth curve.

Initially, the growth rate was slow due to various factors such as limited access to resources and high infant mortality rates. However, with the advent of better medicine and agricultural practices in the 19th century, the growth rate started to increase exponentially.

As the population increased, the availability of resources became more limited, leading to a decrease in the growth rate. This decrease in growth rate is due to a combination of factors such as increased competition for resources, decreased fertility rates, and improved family planning.

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assume that ptosis (droopy eyelid) is inherited as an autosomal dominant human trait. among 100 people who are known to be heterozygous for the ptosis allele, 80 have ptosis and 20 have normal eyelids. what is the penetrance for ptosis?

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The penetrance of ptosis in this population is 80%. This means that 80% of individuals carrying the ptosis allele express the phenotype associated with it.

Penetrance = (Number of individuals with ptosis)/(Total number of individuals carrying the ptosis allele)

Penetrance = 80/100

Penetrance = 0.8

Phenotype refers to the observable physical and biochemical characteristics of an organism, which result from the interaction of its genetic makeup (genotype) with environmental factors. These characteristics include traits such as eye color, height, behavior, and susceptibility to certain diseases.

Phenotypes are important in understanding how traits are inherited and how they evolve over time. Scientists study phenotypes to learn about the underlying genetic and environmental factors that contribute to the expression of certain traits. By understanding how phenotypes are inherited, scientists can make predictions about the likelihood of certain traits appearing in future generations.

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where the mixture of partially digested food and gastric juice.

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This mixture is known as chyme, and it is located in the stomach. Chyme is a viscous, semi-liquid mixture of partially digested food and gastric juice that is produced in the stomach during the process of digestion.

The stomach is a muscular sac that is lined with mucous membranes, and it is responsible for breaking down food into a form that can be absorbed by the body. When food enters the stomach, it is mixed with gastric juice, which is a combination of hydrochloric acid, pepsin, and other digestive enzymes. The acidic environment of the stomach helps to break down proteins and other macromolecules into smaller pieces that can be absorbed by the small intestine.

Over time, the chyme becomes more and more liquid as it is broken down by the stomach's muscular contractions. Eventually, the chyme is released into the small intestine, where it is further broken down and absorbed into the bloodstream.

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problem 5: in an alaskan village of inuit indians, an inordinate number of cats have 6 toes on each foot. the trait of polydactyly (many digits) is caused by a dominant allele. if 22% of the cats have 6 digits per foot, what is the allele frequency of this dominant allele in this population of cats?

Answers

The allele frequency of the polydactyly (many digits) trait in the population of cats in the Alaskan village of Inuit Indians is 0.22 (22%).

Polydactyly is caused by a dominant allele, meaning that the allele is expressed in the organism even when the organism only has one copy of it.
This means that in the population of cats, 22% of them are expressing the trait, indicating that 22% of the cats have one or two copies of the dominant allele for polydactyly.

In order for the cats to have this trait, at least one of their parents must have the same dominant allele, meaning that the parents of the cats expressing the trait must have a combined allele frequency of 0.22 (22%) or more.
The allele frequency of 0.22 (22%) is then passed on to the offspring of the cats expressing the trait, meaning that the cats expressing the trait must have a combined allele frequency of 0.22 (22%) or more.

This means that 22% of the cats in the population have either one or two copies of the dominant allele for polydactyly.

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muller (1998) observed conspecific attraction in desert clickers. what hypothesized mechanism explains her observations?

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Müller (1998) observed conspecific attraction in desert clickers and proposed the hypothesis of environmental tracking to explain her observations.

The environmental tracking hypothesis suggests that desert clickers use conspecific attraction as a mechanism to locate suitable habitats or resources in their arid environment because it indicates the presence of favorable conditions, such as food, water, or suitable microhabitats.

Müller's observations of conspecific attraction in desert clickers and the proposed environmental tracking hypothesis shed light on how animals, particularly those living in challenging environments, utilize social information to navigate and locate crucial resources for their survival and reproductive success.

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which of the following is true regarding surfactant? group of answer choices it is produced by the type i alveolar cells stiffens the lungs makes it harder to breathe it is important in preventing collapsing of alveoli increases surface tension

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Surfactant is a substance produced by type I alveolar cells that lines the alveoli and reduces surface tension, making it easier to breathe.

It is an important component of the lungs, as it helps to prevent the collapse of alveoli and keeps the lungs inflated. Without surfactant, the alveoli would not be able to remain inflated, and this would make it harder to breathe.
Of the answers provided, only the first answer is true, that surfactant is produced by type I alveolar cells. The other answers are false, as surfactant does not increase surface tension, stiffen the lungs, or make it harder to breathe.
In summary, surfactant is a substance produced by type I alveolar cells that reduces surface tension and helps to prevent the collapse of alveoli, making it easier to breathe.

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simba runs into another biome protecting himself from the hyenas because they refuse to enter.which biome is it

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The other biome is a rainforest. Rainforests are often dense and difficult for large predators like hyenas to navigate, providing a safe refuge for animals like Simba.

Rainforests have a wide range of climates and environments, which can vary from the tropical to the temperate. They are also home to a variety of plants, animals, and insects, making them ideal for animals looking to escape predators. Rainforests also provide an abundance of food and water, allowing animals to live without fear of starvation.

The canopy, or the uppermost layer of the rainforest, also provides a natural camouflage for animals looking to hide, giving them a better chance of survival. Rainforests are also home to a variety of predators, like jaguars, snakes, and other big cats, which can provide further protection for animals looking to avoid hyenas.

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using wobble rules, what is the minimum number of trnas that a cell needs in order to read all serine codons?

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A cell requires at least three different tRNAs to read all of the codons, each of which can bind to at least two of the codons due to wobble rules.

The wobble hypothesis implies that particular bases of tRNA anticodons can form nonstandard base pairs with certain bases of the codon located in the mRNA.

In other words, in a given codon-anticodon pairing, the first two base pairs are rigid and exact, but the third base pair may be less strict. According to Wobble's hypothesis, a single tRNA might pair with many mRNA codons that vary only in their third nucleotide, because of this flexibility.

Because of the wobble hypothesis, fewer tRNAs are required for translation. Each tRNA has a specific amino acid attached to it, and the anticodon of each tRNA binds to a specific codon on the mRNA during translation. In order to read all serine codons, a cell requires at least three different tRNAs.

There are six serine codons, and they all contain the same first two bases (AG), however they differ in the third base. Two of the serine codons use UCU and UCC, two use UCA and UCG, and the other two use AGU and AGC.

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describe the stages of viral replication in animal cells and indicate where dna and rna viruses replicate their genomes within the cell

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As the virus comes into touch with the host cell and delivers viral material into the cell, viral entry is the first stage of infection in the viral life cycle.

The following steps are involved in viral replication,

a connection to the host cell's surface; penetrating and entry into the host cells;  their own proteins' coatings being removed; ceasing the replication of the host's genetic material in order to replicate their genetic material; putting together their own form; and Get out of the host cell.

The genetic components of viruses, either DNA or RNA, insert themselves into the genetic makeup of the host cell during replication and assembly. The host DNA is then stimulated by the viral nucleic acids to reproduce the viral genome.

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a severe deficiency of protein results in kwashiorkor; a severe deficiency of kilocalories causes marasmus. a severe deficiency of protein results in kwashiorkor; a severe deficiency of kilocalories causes marasmus. true false

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The given statement, " a severe deficiency of protein results in kwashiorkor; a severe deficiency of kilocalories causes marasmus," is true because marasmus is caused by the deficiency of all the nutrients while kwashiorkor is caused only due to protein deficiency.

Kwashiorkor is the malnutrition disease. It occurs in the babies and children who lack the sufficient protein in their diet. The main effect of the disease is the presence of excess fluid in the body tissues resulting in their swelling.

Marasmus is also a malnutrition disease where there occurs a total calories insufficiency. The effect of this disease is the loss in the adipose tissue and muscle.

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Hormones are chemicals secreted and regulated by the endocrine system.truefalse

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True. Hormones are chemical messengers that are produced and secreted by the endocrine system, which is made up of glands throughout the body.

These hormones are transported through the bloodstream to target cells and tissues, where they bind to specific receptors and initiate various physiological responses. The endocrine system plays a crucial role in regulating a wide range of functions in the body, including growth and development, metabolism, mood, and reproduction. The production and release of hormones are tightly regulated by feedback mechanisms to maintain homeostasis in the body. Hormonal imbalances can lead to various disorders and diseases, such as diabetes, thyroid disorders, and hormonal cancers.

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the u.s. endangered species act officially expired in multiple choice question. a) 1973 b) 1950 c) 1988 d) 1905 e) 1992

Answers

The U.S. Endangered Species Act officially expired in 1992.

Thus, the correct option is E.

The Endаngered Species Аct wаs pаssed in а bipаrtisаn mаnner in 1973 to protect species аt risk of extinction. Аlthough аuthorizаtion for the lаw expired in 1992, it continues to be implemented.  

Unfortunаtely, over the pаst 40 yeаrs, the ESА hаs become highly contentious, politicаl, аnd litigious, pitting аgаinst eаch other those who should be working towаrd а common goаl. Todаy’s ESА is used to control lаnd аnd wаter fаr more thаn it is to successfully recover species. Of the neаrly 2000 species thаt hаve been plаced on the ESА, only а hаndful hаve аctuаlly been recovered.

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What helps cells to maintain homeostasis

Answers

Answer: A series of control mechanisms functioning at the organ, tissue or cellular level.

Explanation: A series of control mechanisms functioning at the organ, tissue or cellular level.

emerging viruses arise by * 5 points a) mutation of existing viruses. b) the spread of existing viruses to new host species. c) the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species. d) all of the above

Answers

The emergence of new viruses can occur through a variety of mechanisms. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) all of the above.

What is emerging viruses ?

Emerging viruses are viruses that have recently appeared or are rapidly increasing in incidence or geographic range. These viruses are often new strains or variants of known viruses that have mutated or evolved to become more virulent, infectious.

Emerging viruses can pose significant public health threats, as they often have no known treatments or vaccines and can rapidly spread from person to person.

Therefore, the correct option is D

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a gardener would like to grow a lemon tree from a lemon. what is the first thing he should do?

Answers

If a gardener wants to grow a lemon tree from a lemon, the first thing he should do is to remove the seeds from the lemon to germinate.

A gardener who wants to grow a lemon tree from a lemon should follow a series of steps. These steps are as follows:

Step 1: Remove the seeds from the lemon. The seeds should be washed and cleaned with water. The gardener should be careful not to damage the seeds.

Step 2: Prepare the soil. The soil should be well-draining, rich in nutrients, and have a pH of 5.5 to 6.5. The gardener can mix sand, perlite, and vermiculite to the soil to increase its drainage.

Step 3: Plant the seeds. The gardener should plant the seeds about 1 inch deep into the soil. The soil should be moist but not waterlogged.

Step 4: Cover the pot with a plastic bag or a plastic wrap to create a greenhouse effect.

Step 5: Place the pot in a warm and sunny location. The temperature should be around 70 degrees Fahrenheit.

Step 6: Water the soil regularly. The soil should be kept moist but not waterlogged.

Step 7: Wait for the seeds to germinate. It may take a few weeks to a few months for the seeds to germinate.

Step 8: Once the seedlings have grown big enough, they can be transplanted into a bigger pot. The plant should be kept in a warm and sunny location. The soil should be kept moist but not waterlogged.

Step 9: The lemon tree should be fertilized with a citrus fertilizer every two weeks during the growing season.

Step 10: The lemon tree should be pruned regularly to remove dead, damaged, or diseased branches.

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Other Questions
what should your next steps be? check all that apply. brainstorm for ideas. evaluate your message. conduct any necessary research. jot down reasons that explain the bad news a client wishing to lose weight is considering how to best consume a small amount of pasta. which food choice will the nurse recommend as a topping for pasta? d. if a student was an undergraduate business major, what is the probability that the student intends to attend classes full-time in pursuit of an mba degree (to decimals)? In this exercise, you will practice identifying a fallacy that is usually referred to as begging the question. This fallacy is often classified as a fallacy of presumption. Generally, fallacies of presumption arise because the premises simply presume what they are supposed to prove rather than provide evidence from which a genuine conclusion may be inferred. In particular, the fallacy of begging the question may presume its purported conclusion in one of three ways: 1. It may leave out a shaky premise that is nevertheless necessary for the conclusion to follow (thus presuming that there is stronger support for the conclusion than is actually the case). 2. It may simply restate a questionable premise using slightly different language. 3. It may reason in a circle of inferences from one shaky premise to the next, winding up with a conclusion that again restates a questionable premise. In each of these three ways, begging the question creates the illusion that inadequate premises provide actual support for a conclusion, when in fact the conclusion simply restates questionable assumptions that are left unproven within the premises. Consider each of the following argumentative passages and indicate (1) whether it commits a fallacy and (2) whether, specifically, it commits the fallacy of begging the question. (Note: It is possible for a single argument to commit more than one type of fallacy. Also, if an argument commits a different fallacy altogether, indicate that it does commit a fallacy, but not the "begging the question" fallacy.) George said that he selected leaders with the best of intentions, but he was still disappointed in the outcome. We can only surmise that the leaders' intentions weren't as good as George had expected. Passage A commit a fallacy; specifically, it commit the fallacy of begging the question. \begin{tabular}{|c|} \hline does \\ \hline does not \\ \hline \end{tabular} Passage B You can find scientists who believe that global warming is not significantly affected by human activity, just as you can find scientists whon believe that global warming is significantly affected by human activity. Since scientists cannot even agree on the issue, whould not alter our human activities in hopes of affecting global warming. Passage B commit a fallacy; specifically, it commit the fallacy of begging the question. Passage C I am tired of all these boring logic exercises. I can pass the test tomorrow without all this practice, anyway. Don't you want to quit doing logic exercises and go to the party with us, or are you going to be a nerd your whole life? Passage C commit a fallacy; specifically, it commit the fallacy of begging the question. War always involves killing, and murder is always wrong. Therefore, war is always wrong. Passage D commit a fallacy; specifically, it Passage E does not Earth is closer to the sun than Neptune. So, Earth has a shorter orbit than Neptune. Passage E commit a fallacy; specifically, it commit the fallacy of begging the question. Which correctly describes a different evolutionary stage of a star like the sunA) its forms from a cold, dusty molecular cloudB) During a yellow giant stage, it burns carbon in its core and helium in the shell surrounding the core. C) After leaving the main sequence, its core is stable due to electron degeneracyD) It becomes a white dwarf after exploding as a supernovaE)During a red giant stage, its core contracts and cools T/F,Companies that succeed in a turbulent world are those in which managers are evaluated and rewarded for paying attention to both cultural values and business performance. What is the kinetic energy of the ball as it is halfway through the fall from a forty foot building? What is the potential energy? the first theme group of the second exposition of a concerto features arondo recapitulation baryton modulation Factor 64v+8w. ASAPPP PLSS One major way of indicating the main points of a lecture is the use of ______a.Capitalisation of wordsb.italicsc.Repetitiond.transitional devices write down a reaction scheme for polymerization of styrene initiated by thermolysis of azobisisobutyronitrile, including both combination and disproportionation as possible modes of termination. ca 2hcl --> cacl2 h how many hydrogen atoms must be present in the product in order for the equation to be balanced? what is the order of steps taken by b and t cells to defend against infection in body fluids and cells? suppose you have only 1.9 g of sulfur for an experiment and you must do three trials using 0.030 mol of s each time. do you have enough sulfur sales plan formulation, sales plan implementation, and salesforce evaluation are the three functions of citric acid, which is present in citrus fruits, is a triprotic acid. calculate the ph and the citrate ion concentration for a 0.05 m solution of citric acid. what is the angle measurement of 1 Help please its urgent A car uses 50 litres of fuel to complete a 400kmalong a high way. How far will it work if it uses 20 litres all of the following about nonalcoholic beverages are true except: question 24 options: 1) fair trade ensures that buyers are not being overcharged by suppliers on their coffee purchases. 2) when purchasing postmix nonalcoholic beverage products, the buyer anticipates some ap cost savings because he or she is using product concentrates. 3) standing orders for nonalcoholic beverages are delivered by route sales people. 4) coffee is best stored under refrigeration or in the freezer.