Routine vaginal exams are contraindicated in patients admitted with suspected placenta previa.
What is placenta previa?Placenta previa is a condition that occurs when the placenta lies low in the uterus, partially or completely covering the cervix. This condition causes vaginal bleeding, and if not addressed, it can cause severe maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality.
What is a routine nursing assessment?A nursing assessment is the first step in the nursing process. This process entails gathering information about the client's health status and history, as well as conducting a physical examination.
The nursing assessment includes the collection of data related to the patient's physiological, psychological, sociological, and spiritual needs. This data is gathered through subjective and objective assessments, including laboratory and diagnostic testing, as well as interviews with the client and their family.
Routine nursing assessments include taking vital signs, measuring urine output, and monitoring the patient's level of consciousness, among other things. They are conducted on a regular basis, typically every four hours, to determine the patient's response to therapy and to detect early signs of deterioration.
However, when a patient is admitted with suspected placenta previa, routine vaginal exams are contraindicated.
Routine vaginal exams are contraindicated in patients admitted with suspected placenta previa. This is because any contact with the cervix, including a vaginal exam, can cause hemorrhage and further complicate the patient's condition.
Therefore, the nurse should avoid conducting a vaginal exam and instead, focus on obtaining information through other assessments, such as obtaining fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs.
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a nurse assesses risk factors for vision loss in an older adult client. which action will the nurse include in this assessment?
The nurse will assess risk factors for vision loss in an older adult client by evaluating the client's medical history, current medications, and any other relevant information that might indicate a potential vision problem. They will also conduct a physical exam, assess the patient's vision, and discuss lifestyle habits and environmental factors that may be causing or exacerbating the vision problem.
The nurse will use the assessment results to recommend any necessary treatment or interventions to improve the client's vision and overall health.Nurses examine the risk factors for vision loss in an older adult patient to assess their chance of developing vision loss. The following steps should be taken:Ensure that the client is well-informed about the assessment and that any concerns are addressed. You should also express your empathy and compassion for any concerns the patient may have.Examine the client's past and current medical history. Some illnesses, medications, and disorders may increase the risk of vision loss, so it's critical to evaluate the client's previous and current medical history. Some of the chronic illnesses and medications that contribute to the risk of vision loss include diabetes, high blood pressure, and some types of medication.Enquire about the client's family medical history. Many eye disorders and illnesses, such as macular degeneration and glaucoma, have a genetic component. As a result, asking about the client's family medical history can provide important information about their risk of developing such disorders.Assess the patient's lifestyle. If a patient smokes, it may increase the risk of vision loss. It is critical to inquire about the client's lifestyle, particularly whether they smoke or use alcohol, as these behaviors may increase the risk of vision loss.Inquire about the client's occupation and hobbies. Some occupations, hobbies, and other activities may increase the risk of eye harm, therefore knowing more about these factors is important. The nurse should assess the risk factors for vision loss in an older adult client.Learn more about glaucoma: https://brainly.com/question/2286998
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which information about an 80-yr-old male patient at the senior center is of most concern to the nurse? a. decreased appetite c. difficulty chewing food b. unintended weight loss d. complaints of indigestion ans: b unintentional weight loss is not a normal finding and may indicate a problem such as cancer or depression. poor appetite, difficulty in chewing, and complaints of indigestion are common in older patients. these will need to be addres
The information about an 80-year-old male patient at the senior center that is of most concern to the nurse is unintended weight loss. The correct option is b.
Unintentional weight loss is not a normal finding in older adults and may indicate an underlying health problem such as cancer, depression, or malnutrition. It is important to address this issue promptly to determine the cause and provide appropriate interventions.
While decreased appetite, difficulty chewing food, and complaints of indigestion are common in older adults, they may also contribute to unintended weight loss. However, these issues can often be addressed through adjustments in the patient's diet or medical management.
In summary, unintended weight loss is a significant concern in older adults and requires further assessment to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate interventions to prevent further health complications.
Hence, b.unintended weight loss is the correct answer.
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the nurse is monitoring a group of clients being treated for various chronic illnesses. which clients should the nurse prioritize as most at risk for hyperkalemia? select all that apply.
Hyperkalemia is a condition in which there is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. It can be caused by a variety of medical conditions and medications, and can be life-threatening if not treated quickly.
The clients at most risk for hyperkalemia are those who have chronic kidney disease, diabetes, or heart failure. These conditions can cause a buildup of potassium in the bloodstream, and the medications used to treat them can also cause an elevation in potassium levels. Additionally, clients who are taking certain medications, such as ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-II receptor blockers, and diuretics, are at an increased risk of developing hyperkalemia.
The nurse should prioritize these clients as most at risk for hyperkalemia, and should monitor their potassium levels closely. They should also assess for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia, such as nausea, fatigue, abdominal pain, and muscle weakness, and report these to the physician immediately. The nurse should also provide patient education on the importance of taking medications as prescribed, eating a balanced diet, and monitoring their potassium levels regularly.
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the nurse is caring for a client with an infected wound that is left to heal by secondary intention. which observation does the nurse expect to make during assessment of the wound area?
During assessment of the wound, the nurse should expect to observe signs of healing. This can take the form of new granulation tissue, which is a pink, moist, and somewhat shiny tissue that is forming in the wound bed.
The nurse should also observe the wound bed for signs of infection, such as redness, tenderness, warmth, and discharge. Depending on the severity of the infection, the nurse may observe necrotic tissue or slough, which is yellow or tan in color and appears dry and stringy. The nurse should also note any changes in size or depth of the wound, as well as any changes in the surrounding skin.
Additionally, the nurse should observe the presence of any surrounding edema or swelling, which could indicate an infection or other complications. Finally, the nurse should observe for any signs of malodor, which could also indicate infection.
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the nurse on the medical unit expects which medication to be prescribed for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawl kaplan c ngn mental health
The medication prescribed for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepines.
Alcohol withdrawal refers to the physical and emotional symptoms that occur when an individual who has been drinking for a long period of time stops drinking abruptly. The condition typically develops within a few hours to a few days of the last drink and can last for several days or weeks. The symptoms of alcohol withdrawal range from mild to severe and can include nausea, vomiting, headache, sweating, insomnia, agitation, anxiety, seizures, and hallucinations.
These symptoms are caused by changes in the brain's chemistry that occur as a result of chronic alcohol consumption. Benzodiazepines are a class of medications used to treat anxiety and other psychiatric conditions. They are also used to treat alcohol withdrawal, as they help to reduce the severity of the symptoms and prevent seizures.
Benzodiazepines work by enhancing the activity of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), which is responsible for slowing down the brain's activity. This helps to reduce anxiety and other symptoms associated with alcohol withdrawal.The most commonly used benzodiazepines for alcohol withdrawal include diazepam (Valium), lorazepam (Ativan), and chlordiazepoxide (Librium). These medications are typically administered on an as-needed basis to manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal.
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a nurse caring for an infant with neonatal bronchopulmonary dysplasia (chronic lung disease) administers furosemide. what is the priority intervention following the administration of this medication?
The priority intervention following the administration of furosemide by a nurse caring for an infant with neonatal bronchopulmonary dysplasia is to monitor the infant's fluid and electrolyte balance.
Here, correct option is C.
Furosemide is a diuretic drug that is used to treat fluid build-up caused by heart failure, liver disease, and kidney disease. It is also used to treat hypertension. The medication prevents the absorption of salt and excess water in the body.
The drug increases urination and aids in the removal of excess salt and fluid from the body. The priority intervention following the administration of furosemide by a nurse caring for an infant with neonatal bronchopulmonary dysplasia is to monitor the infant's fluid and electrolyte balance. This is because furosemide can cause dehydration by removing excessive water and salt from the body.
Therefore, correct option is C.
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Complete question is :
A nurse caring for an infant with neonatal bronchopulmonary dysplasia (chronic lung disease) administers furosemide. what is the priority intervention following the administration of this medication?
A. monitor the infant's fluid. B. electrolyte balance. C. both.
when the nurse is performing a skin assessment on a client, a small wound is noted on the client's right leg. the wound is covered with a desiccated scab. the appropriate action by the nurse is:
When the nurse is performing a skin assessment on a client and a small wound is noted on the client's right leg, the wound is covered with a desiccated scab. The appropriate action by the nurse is to follow the agency's policy regarding wound care.
A nurse should be familiar with the agency's policies on wound care to ensure that the correct protocol is followed. The care of a wound will be determined by the degree of contamination or infection, the amount of exudate, and the depth of the wound. When it comes to wound care, the nurse must first clean and sterilize their hands before taking any action.
The following are some basic wound care guidelines: Begin by washing your hands, and then put on sterile gloves when appropriate. Remove any dirt or debris from the wound site with a saline-soaked sterile swab. Apply an appropriate dressing or bandage to the wound site, ensuring that it is clean, dry, and intact. When caring for a wound, remember to follow universal precautions to prevent the spread of infectious diseases.
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kelly currently eats a diet that consists mainly of red meat, junk food, and soda. to lower her risk of heart disease, she should:
Answer:
To lower her risk of heart disease, Kelly should make some changes to her diet and lifestyle. Here are some suggestions:
Reduce consumption of red meat: Red meat is high in saturated fats, which can raise cholesterol levels and increase the risk of heart disease. Kelly can reduce her consumption of red meat and choose leaner sources of protein, such as chicken, fish, beans, or lentils.
Increase consumption of fruits and vegetables: Fruits and vegetables are high in fiber, vitamins, and minerals that are essential for good health. Kelly can add more fruits and vegetables to her diet, aiming for at least five servings per day.
Choose healthier snacks: Instead of junk food, Kelly can choose healthier snacks, such as nuts, seeds, yogurt, or whole-grain crackers with hummus.
a nurse is caring for a client with renal failure who weighed 61 kilograms at admission and now weighs 63 kilograms. how much fluid has the client gained?
1000 mL
250 mL
500 mL
2000 mL
Answer:
To determine the amount of fluid gained by the client, we need to calculate the difference between the admission weight and the current weight.
The amount of fluid gained can be calculated as follows:
63 kg (current weight) - 61 kg (admission weight) = 2 kg
1 kg of body weight is equivalent to 1000 mL of fluid. Therefore, 2 kg is equivalent to 2000 mL of fluid.
Therefore, the client has gained 2000 mL of fluid. Answer: 2000 mL.
a physician indicates that a patient post cva has significant perceptual deficits. what anatomical region would most likely be affected by the stroke?
Answer:
Neocortex
Explanation:
The neocortex comprises the largest part of the cerebral cortex and makes up approximately half the volume of the human brain. It is thought to be responsible for the neuronal computations of attention, thought, perception and episodic memory
the nurse has a medication supplied in milliliters and a dosing spoon calibrated in teaspoons (tsp). which conversion factor should the nurse use to convert millilters to teaspoons?
The nurse should use the conversion factor of 1 milliliter (mL) = 0.20 teaspoons (tsp). This conversion factor is based on the metric system, which is the standard for medication dosing.
One milliliter is equal to one cubic centimeter and is the same as one thousandth of a liter. One teaspoon is equal to five milliliters and is the same as five thousandths of a liter. Therefore, one milliliter is equal to 0.20 teaspoons.
This conversion factor should be used to convert the medication supplied in milliliters to the dosing spoon calibrated in teaspoons when administering medication.
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what is the most important consideration for the nurse when communicating with an adolescent about sexually transmitted infections (sti)?
When communicating with an adolescent about sexually transmitted infections (STIs), the most important consideration for the nurse is to create a safe, non-judgmental, and supportive environment. Adolescents may feel embarrassed or ashamed about discussing their sexual health and practices, so the nurse needs to establish trust and maintain confidentiality to ensure that the adolescent feels comfortable sharing information.
The most important consideration for the nurse when communicating with an adolescent about sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is to ensure that the conversation is nonjudgmental and confidential.
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are infections that can be contracted via sexual contact. STIs are also known as sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). The following are some of the most prevalent STIs: Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, Syphilis, Herpes, Genital, warts, Hepatitis B, HIV/AIDS
The nurse should use clear and age-appropriate language to explain the risks associated with unprotected sexual activity and ways to prevent STIs, such as using condoms and getting regular testing. The nurse should also provide resources for testing and treatment, as well as information about local health clinics and other support services.
It is also important for the nurse to address any myths or misconceptions the adolescent may have about STIs and to emphasize that seeking help for a possible STI is a responsible and important step in protecting one's health. The nurse should also discuss the importance of discussing sexual health with their partner(s) and practicing open communication.
Overall, the nurse should approach the conversation with sensitivity and empathy, while providing accurate and informative guidance to help the adolescent make informed decisions about their sexual health.
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which sudden-onset clinical manifestations of pulmonary embolism demand immediate attention and care?
The most typical PE symptoms are dyspnea, chest discomfort, and cough, whereas the most typical physical findings are fever, tachycardia, aberrant pulmonary signs, or peripheral vascular collapse.
What should be done to treat a pulmonary embolism right away?Keep an eye out for symptoms of a fresh PE, such as new chest pain accompanied by breathing problems, an accelerated heartbeat, or lightheadedness. Persistent PE can be fatal and needs to be treated right away. Call for assistance right away if you have any of these symptoms (In the United States and Canada, call 9-1-1 for an ambulance.)
Are there any immediate signs of embolism?Symptomless pulmonary embolism affects 50% of patients. If you do experience symptoms, they may include chest pain, coughing up blood, or shortness of breath. Warmth, swelling, discomfort, soreness, and redness of a leg are signs of a blood clot.
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the nurse enters the room to do an initial assessment on a client with a fracture of the femoral head. what would be the expected findings on the affected limb?
However, if the nurse enters the room to do an initial assessment on a client with a fracture of the femoral head, the expected findings on the affected limb would include:
Swelling Pain Reduced range of motion Bruising or discoloration Stiffness Difficulty bearing weight on the leg or inability to walk Normally, the leg may seem shorter than the other leg as well. The degree of pain can vary depending on the severity of the fracture. The affected leg can also become numb, tingling, or cold to the touch. To confirm the diagnosis, an x-ray or other imaging tests are often necessary.
A femoral head fracture is a type of hip fracture that involves the ball-like head of your thighbone or femur. Fractures to the femoral head can range from small cracks to complete breakage, depending on the force of the injury. These injuries may occur in conjunction with other hip injuries or fractures. The most common cause of a femoral head fracture is a fall. Other potential causes include motor vehicle accidents, sports injuries, and domestic violence.
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a pt has been confined to bed for a period of 2 months and now demonstrates limited rom in both le. range in hip flx is 5-115 deg and knee flx is 10-120 deg. the pta has indicated that flexibility activities should be implemented to improve the rom in preparation of standing activities. which represents the most appropriate intervention to improve flexibility and ready this pt for standing?
The most appropriate intervention to improve flexibility and ready this patient for standing is passive range of motion (PROM) exercise.
What is the passive range of motion (PROM)?Passive range of motion (PROM) is a type of physical therapy that involves a physical therapist or other trained professional to move your limbs through your range of motion for you. In this type of exercise, the person stays in a relaxed position while the joint is moved through its natural motion.
PROM is used when the patient is unable to move on their own, as in the case of a patient who has been confined to bed for two months. Range of motion (ROM) exercises are used to improve the flexibility of a joint. Active and passive movements are two types of range-of-motion (ROM) exercises.
Active movement exercises are carried out by the patient, whereas passive movement exercises are carried out by someone else. The hip flexion and knee flexion ROMs of the patient in this scenario indicate that they have a limited range of motion (ROM).
To improve the patient's ROM and prepare them for standing activities, passive ROM exercises are the most suitable intervention.
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a patient with type 1 diabetes is eating breakfast at 7:30 am. blood sugars are on a sliding scale and are ordered before a meal and at bedtime. the patient's blood sugar level is 317 mg/dl. which formulation of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer? a. no insulin should be administered. b. nph c. 70/30 mix d. lispro [humalog]
The formulation of insulin that should the nurse prepare to administer to a patient with type 1 diabetes who is eating breakfast at 7:30 am and has a blood sugar level of 317 mg/dl is lispro [Humalog]. The correct answer is d.
What is type 1 diabetes?Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease characterized by the body's failure to produce insulin due to the immune system attacking the pancreas. Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels, so a lack of insulin results in high blood sugar levels. It affects children and young adults, although it can occur at any age.
Patients with type 1 diabetes must take insulin for the rest of their lives to regulate their blood sugar levels.
What is a sliding scale?A sliding scale is a tool used to control blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. The amount of insulin required is determined by a patient's blood sugar level, which is assessed before meals and at bedtime.
The blood sugar level will dictate the amount of insulin needed, which will be calculated using a sliding scale, ensuring that insulin administration is tailored to the patient's specific needs. The sliding scale provides a set of insulin dosages that correspond to various blood sugar levels.
The dosage of insulin is increased or decreased depending on the patient's blood sugar levels. Dosage adjustments are made after every reading. Insulin, a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels, is the medication most commonly used in the treatment of diabetes.
What formulation of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer?The patient's blood sugar level is 317 mg/dl, and the nurse is required to prepare a formulation of insulin. According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA) guidelines, insulin lispro [Humalog] is a rapid-acting insulin that should be used to control blood sugar levels in individuals with type 1 diabetes.
Lispro [Humalog] is a quick-acting insulin that begins working in less than 15 minutes and has a peak effect within 1 hour of administration. As a result, it is suitable for controlling the patient's high blood sugar levels. The correct answer is d. lispro [Humalog].
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when admitting an older adult client for nausea and vomiting that has lasted for 3 days, the nurse should assess for which clinical findings?
When admitting an older adult client for nausea and vomiting that has lasted for 3 days, the nurse should assess for several clinical findings to determine the most appropriate nursing intervention.
The highest priority is to assess for deficient fluid volume related to nausea and vomiting, as these symptoms can cause a loss of fluids and electrolytes. The nurse should also assess current vital signs, lab values, and any changes in the client's condition, such as decreased urine output, which can indicate dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
A primary assessment should also be completed at the commencement of each shift, patient encounter or if the patient's condition changes at any other time. By monitoring these clinical findings, the nurse can determine the most appropriate nursing interventions to prevent further complications and improve the client's outcome.
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which are ethical issues that need to be considered as health care reform continues? select all that apply.
Ethical issues related to health care reform include:
Ensuring patient privacy: Patient privacy is an important ethical consideration in healthcare reform. With the increasing use of electronic health records (EHRs) and other health information technologies, there is a need to protect patients' personal health information from unauthorized access or disclosure.
Healthcare reform efforts should prioritize the protection of patient privacy and confidentiality, and ensure that appropriate measures are in place to safeguard patients' health information.
Guaranteeing equitable access to healthcare services: Equity in healthcare means that all individuals, regardless of their socioeconomic status, race, gender, age, or other factors, should have equal opportunities to access healthcare services.
Healthcare reform efforts should aim to promote equitable access to healthcare services, so that everyone has the same chance to receive necessary healthcare regardless of their background or circumstances.
Fairly distributing healthcare resources: Healthcare resources, including facilities, equipment, personnel, and funding, are often limited.
Healthcare reform efforts may involve allocation of these resources in a fair and just manner, so that they are distributed in a way that meets the needs of the population while minimizing disparities and ensuring that vulnerable populations are not left behind.
Preventing discrimination based on age, gender, race, or other protected classes: Healthcare reform should ensure that all individuals, regardless of their age, gender, race, or other protected classes, are treated with dignity and respect, and are not subjected to discrimination or bias in their access to healthcare services or in their treatment by healthcare providers.
Ethical principles of justice and fairness should guide healthcare reform efforts to eliminate discrimination and promote equitable care for all.
Providing informed consent for medical treatment: Informed consent is a fundamental ethical principle in healthcare, which requires healthcare providers to obtain voluntary, informed, and competent consent from patients before initiating any medical treatment or procedure.
Healthcare reform efforts should prioritize the importance of obtaining informed consent from patients, and ensure that patients are fully informed about the benefits, risks, and alternatives of their treatment options so that they can make autonomous and informed decisions about their healthcare.
In conclusion, healthcare reform efforts raise important ethical considerations related to patient privacy, equitable access to healthcare services, fair distribution of healthcare resources, prevention of discrimination, and informed consent.
It is essential for healthcare policymakers, providers, and other stakeholders to carefully consider these ethical issues and incorporate ethical principles in the design and implementation of healthcare reform initiatives to ensure that they are just, fair, and aligned with the values of respect, autonomy, and social justice.
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a nurse is caring for a patient with depression who is prescribed monoamine oxidase. the nurse advises the patient to avoid eating cheese and flax beans because they can cause hypertensive crisis. which therapeutic communication technique did the nurse use while caring for the patient?
The therapeutic communication technique that the nurse used while caring for a patient with depression who is prescribed monoamine oxidase, is education or teaching.
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are a type of antidepressant medication that is used to treat depression.
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a type of antidepressant that is used to treat severe or treatment-resistant depression. They work by blocking the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which breaks down the neurotransmitters norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine in the brain.
Therapeutic communication is a form of communication between the patient and the healthcare provider that is intended to benefit the patient.
The aim of therapeutic communication is to build trust, establish a rapport, and encourage the patient to express themselves freely.
Education or teaching is one of the therapeutic communication techniques that the nurse used while caring for the patient.
The nurse educated the patient about the possible food interactions with MAOIs. The nurse told the patient that they should avoid eating cheese and flax beans while taking MAOIs because they could cause a hypertensive crisis. This is an example of therapeutic communication in action.
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an adequate calcium intake throughout life helps protect against: a. dementia. b. liver cancer. c. cardiovascular disease. d. diabetes. e. osteoporosis.
An adequate calcium intake throughout life helps protect against osteoporosis.
So, the correct answer is E.
Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak bones that are more prone to fractures. Calcium is crucial for the maintenance of healthy bones, and a deficiency in calcium can result in bone loss.
In addition to osteoporosis, an adequate intake of calcium is also important in reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease. Calcium is important in maintaining normal blood pressure and reducing the risk of hypertension. High blood pressure is a risk factor for heart disease and stroke. Calcium is also important for maintaining brain health and cognitive function, as well as reducing the risk of liver cancer and diabetes.
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the nurse is correct to tell a family that their child should begin adult sized portions of food at what age?
Answer:
at 2 years old
Explanation:
As babies get older, they need solid food to get enough nutrients for growth and development
when reviewing the health history of a patient who wants to begin taking oral contraceptives, the nurse recalls that which conditions are contraindications to this drug therapy?
When reviewing the health history of a patient who wants to begin taking oral contraceptives, the nurse recalls that hypertension, history of stroke, and history of deep vein thrombosis are contraindications to this drug therapy.
Oral contraceptives, often known as birth control pills, are a kind of hormone therapy that contains estrogen and progestin. These hormones, as the name implies, prevent pregnancy by blocking ovulation. They also thicken the cervical mucus, which makes it difficult for sperm to reach the egg.
Because oral contraceptives are a type of hormonal medication, they may cause a variety of side effects. They're also contraindicated for women who have certain health issues. Here are some contraindications to oral contraceptive therapy: Hypertension: Women who have uncontrolled high blood pressure (over 160/100 mmHg) should not take oral contraceptives.
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the nurse is teaching an antepartum class to first-time mothers. a mother asks the nurse if she should stay in bed when her contractions start. how should the nurse respond?
When a first-time mother asks the nurse if she should stay in bed when her contractions start, the nurse should respond by telling her to move about to aid the baby's descent.
The nurse should respond to the mother by telling her that it is best to stay in bed when contractions start. Being in bed can help to make the contractions more effective and help progress labor. Additionally, staying in bed can help reduce fatigue, making it easier to cope with labor. If the mother feels that she needs to move around to cope with the contractions, then she can do light walking or try other comfort measures such as changing positions or having a warm shower.
The nurse is teaching an antepartum class to first-time mothers. A mother asks the nurse if she should stay in bed when her contractions start. Antepartum refers to the period of time from conception through the onset of labor. It's a term that refers to the period of time before childbirth. It usually takes about 40 weeks from the first day of a woman's last menstrual cycle to the day her baby is born
During antepartum classes, mothers are usually educated on how to properly care for themselves and their unborn children during pregnancy. They're also taught the warning signs of potential complications, such as preterm labor and preeclampsia, and how to deal with them. This helps mothers prepare for childbirth and postpartum care.
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61. the client is four hours post admission after high cervical spinal cord trauma. which nursing intervention should be implemented? a. undertake neurological assessment every four hours b. administer narcotic medications every six hours c. assess the client for difficulty in swallowing or speaking d. nurse the client prone with legs slightly elevated
The nursing intervention that should be implemented four hours post admission after high cervical spinal cord trauma is to undertake neurological assessment every four hours. The correct answer is Option A.
What is a neurological assessment?A neurological assessment is an evaluation of the patient's nervous system, which includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerves. It can aid in determining the patient's level of consciousness and how well they can perceive and respond to sensory input. A neurological evaluation can also be utilized to monitor progress or deterioration over time.
What is the importance of a neurological assessment?A neurological assessment is essential because it can aid in the detection of issues with the nervous system, including stroke, neuromuscular conditions, and degenerative diseases, among others. The assessment will determine if there are any changes in the patient's nervous system functioning and if there is any improvement in their condition following surgery or rehabilitation.
The importance of neurological assessment includes:
Monitoring the patient's neurological status is essential for patient care in the hospital setting;
Ensuring the patient receives appropriate care;
It aids in the identification of potential complications;
It provides feedback to the physician, which is essential for proper diagnosis and treatment planning.
Therefore, the nursing intervention that should be implemented four hours post admission after high cervical spinal cord trauma is to undertake neurological assessment every four hours.
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which actions could the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nursr who is part of the team caring for a patient with alzheimers disease
The nurse can delegate the administration of prescribed medication and removal of potential safety hazards to the LPN/LVN caring for a patient with Alzheimer's disease. Thus, Options B and C are correct.
The LPN/LVN can administer prescribed medication, such as memantine (Namenda), and remove potential safety hazards from the patient's environment, such as fall risks.
Developing a plan to minimize difficult behavior, referring the patient and caregivers to appropriate community resources, helping the patient and caregivers choose memory enhancement methods, and evaluating the effectiveness of prescribed enteral feedings are actions that require higher-level nursing judgment and should not be delegated to an LPN/LVN.
Thus, Options B and C are correct.
The complete question:
Which actions could the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) who is part of the team caring for a patient with Alzheimer’s disease (select all that apply)?
a. Develop a plan to minimize difficult behavior. b. Administer the prescribed memantine (Namenda). c. Remove potential safety hazards from the patient’s environment. d. Refer the patient and caregivers to appropriate community resources. e. Help the patient and caregivers choose memory enhancement methods.f. Evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed enteral feedings on patient nutrition.Learn more about Alzheimer https://brainly.com/question/27414232
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a patient is admitted to the emergency department with a diagnosis of ischaemic stroke. the nurse should recognize that which of these factors is a contraindication for the client receiving tissue plasminogen activator (tpa)? () a) 170 mm hg/105 mm hg b) 185 mm hg/110 mm hg c) 190 mm hg/120 mm hg d) 175 mm hg/100 mm hg elevated blood pressure (systolic >185; diastolic >110 mm hg) is a contraindication to tpa.
The nurse should recognize that elevated blood pressure (systolic >185; diastolic >110 mm hg) is a contraindication for the client receiving tissue plasminogen activator (tPa). The correct answer is Option B.
Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is a protein that dissolves blood clots. It can be given to people who have had a stroke to help dissolve the clot and restore blood flow to the brain. tPA must be given within 4.5 hours after stroke symptoms begin. If given in the right way at the right time, tPA can improve the chances of recovering from a stroke.
There are a few reasons why a patient with a stroke might not be able to receive tPA, including:
Blood pressure greater than 185/110 mmHg.
Blood glucose less than 50 or greater than 400 mg/dL.
Current use of anticoagulant medications.
Most patients with a stroke are eligible to receive tPA. However, tPA is not right for everyone. The risk of bleeding in the brain is a major concern when using tPA. Therefore, patients with certain medical conditions or taking specific medications may not be able to receive tPA.
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63. the nurse develops a teaching plan with a patient who is newly diagnosed with parkinson's disease. which of the following topics is the most important to include in the plan? a. maintaining a well-balanced diet b. engaging in diversional activities c. enhancing the immune system d. maintaining a safe environment
The most important topic to include in a teaching plan for a patient newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease is maintaining a safe environment. Hence option d. is correct .
This involves helping the patient to identify potential hazards in the home and develop strategies to reduce the risk of falling and other potential injuries. Additionally, the plan should also address maintaining a well-balanced diet, engaging in diversional activities, and enhancing the immune system.
Parkinson's disease is a chronic neurodegenerative disorder of the nervous system that affects the body's motor system. It has an impact on the patient's muscle movements, often causing tremors, rigidity, slow movement, and difficulty maintaining balance. There is no known cure for Parkinson's disease, but medication and surgery can help manage symptoms.The nurse develops a teaching plan with a patient who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. The patient should be informed on how to manage their surroundings and prevent accidents.
Maintaining a safe environment is important to avoid any injury. Therefore, this is the most important topic to include in the plan. option d. is correct.
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how would the nurse respond to the mother of a 7-month-old infant who expresses fear | that her child will be emotionally traumatized if she is catheterized to obtain a sterile urine - culture?
The nurse would respond to the mother of a 7-month-old infant by reassuring her that the procedure is not painful but rather very simple and painless, and the child would not suffer from any emotional trauma.
Catheterization refers to a medical process in which a catheter is inserted into an artery or vein, sometimes through a needle, for diagnosis or treatment. For patients who have trouble urinating, urinary catheters can be used to drain urine from the bladder.
Catheterization is a medical process that is usually not painful, although the child may cry during the insertion process. It's a simple and painless procedure, and the child would not suffer from any emotional trauma. The nurse should reassure the mother that the catheterization process would not harm her child emotionally, and she should explain the procedure to the mother so that she understands what will happen and why it is necessary.
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a child has been bitten by another child and there is minimal bleeding from the wound. which action would be most appropriate to do first?
The most appropriate first action would be to "wash the area with soap and water" to prevent infection from the bite wound.
Washing the wound with soap and water is crucial to reduce the risk of infection from the bite. Even if the bleeding is minimal, there is still a risk of bacteria and germs entering the wound, which can lead to infections such as tetanus or rabies. It is important to clean the wound thoroughly and cover it with a clean bandage.
If the wound shows any signs of infection such as redness, swelling, or fever, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. It is also important to report the incident to a responsible adult or authority figure to ensure proper follow-up and prevention of future incidents.
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a 6-year-old girl who is being treated for shock is pulseless with an irregular heart rate of 32 bpm. which intervention is priority?
The priority intervention for a 6-year-old girl who is pulseless with an irregular heart rate of 32 bpm is a) Initiate cardiac compressions.
Shock is a condition in which the body is not getting enough blood flow. This can happen when the heart is not pumping effectively or when blood vessels become constricted or blocked. Shock is a medical emergency and can lead to organ failure and death.
An irregular heart rate is a rhythm disorder that causes the heart to beat too quickly, too slowly, or in an erratic pattern. This can be caused by various factors, including heart disease, medication side effects, or electrolyte imbalances. When a patient is in shock and is pulseless with an irregular heart rate, the priority intervention is to initiate cardiac compressions. This involves pressing down on the chest in a rhythmic manner to help keep the blood circulating throughout the body. This should be done while awaiting further medical intervention, such as defibrillation or administration of medications like epinephrine.
Therefore, option A (Initiate cardiac compressions) is the correct answer.
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a 6-year-old girl who is being treated for shock is pulseless with an irregular heart rate of 32 bpm. which intervention is priority?
a) Initiate cardiac compressions
b) Give three doses of epinephrine
c) Administer doses defibrillator shocks in a row
d) Defibrillate once followed by three cycles of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)